CERTIFICATION OF ENROLLMENT

ENGROSSED SUBSTITUTE HOUSE BILL 2041

68TH LEGISLATURE

2024 REGULAR SESSION

ENGROSSED SUBSTITUTE HOUSE BILL 2041

ByHouse Health Care & Wellness (originally sponsored by Representatives Riccelli, Schmick, Simmons, Reed, Schmidt, Macri, and Lekanoff)

AN ACT Relating to physician assistant collaborative practice; amending RCW 18.71A.020, 18.71A.025, 18.71A.030, 18.71A.050, 18.71A.090, 18.71A.120, 18.71A.150, 51.28.100, 10.77.175, 18.71.030, 7.68.030, 51.04.030, 71.05.215, 71.05.217, 71.05.585, 71.32.110, 71.32.140, 71.32.250, 71.34.020, 71.34.020, 71.34.755, and 74.09.497; reenacting and amending RCW 18.71A.010, 69.50.101, 71.05.020, 71.05.020, 71.34.750, 71.34.750, and 9.41.010; adding a new section to chapter 18.71A RCW; adding a new section to chapter 48.43 RCW; creating a new section; providing effective dates; providing contingent effective dates; providing an expiration date; and providing contingent expiration dates.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF WASHINGTON:

Sec. 2. RCW 18.71A.010 and 2020 c 80 s 2 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

The definitions ((set forth)) in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.

(1) "Collaboration" means how physician assistants shall interact with, consult with, or refer to a physician or other appropriate member or members of the health care team as indicated by the patient's condition, the education, experience, and competencies of the physician assistant, and the standard of care. The degree of collaboration must be determined by the practice, which may include decisions made by the physician assistant's employer, group, hospital service, and credentialing and privileging systems of licensed facilities.

(3) "Commission" means the Washington medical commission.

(((2)))(4) "Department" means the department of health.

(((3)))(5) "Employer" means the scope appropriate clinician, such as a medical director, who is authorized to enter into the collaboration agreement with a physician assistant on behalf of the facility, group, clinic, or other organization that employs the physician assistant.

(7) "Physician" means a physician licensed under chapter 18.57 or 18.71 RCW.

(((4)))(8) "Physician assistant" means a person who is licensed by the commission to practice medicine according to a ((practice))collaboration agreement with one or more participating physicians((, with at least one of the physicians working in a supervisory capacity,)) and who is academically and clinically prepared to provide health care services and perform diagnostic, therapeutic, preventative, and health maintenance services.

(((5) "Practice agreement" means an agreement entered under RCW 18.71A.120.

(6)))(9) "Practice medicine" has the meaning defined in RCW 18.71.011 and also includes the practice of osteopathic medicine and surgery as defined in RCW 18.57.001.

(((7)))(10) "Secretary" means the secretary of health or the secretary's designee.

Sec. 3. RCW 18.71A.020 and 2020 c 80 s 3 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) The commission shall adopt rules fixing the qualifications and the educational and training requirements for licensure as a physician assistant or for those enrolled in any physician assistant training program. The requirements shall include completion of an accredited physician assistant training program approved by the commission and within one year successfully take and pass an examination approved by the commission, if the examination tests subjects substantially equivalent to the curriculum of an accredited physician assistant training program. An interim permit may be granted by the department of health for one year provided the applicant meets all other requirements. Physician assistants licensed by the board of medical examiners, or the commission as of July 1, 1999, shall continue to be licensed.

(2)(a) The commission shall adopt rules governing the extent to which:

(i) Physician assistant students may practice medicine during training; and

(ii) Physician assistants may practice after successful completion of a physician assistant training course.

(b) Such rules shall provide:

(i) That the practice of a physician assistant shall be limited to the performance of those services for which he or she is trained; and

(ii) That each physician assistant shall practice medicine only under the terms of one or more ((practice))collaboration agreements, each signed by ((one or more supervising physicians licensed in this state))the physician assistant and one or more physicians licensed in this state or the physician assistant's employer. A ((practice))collaboration agreement may be signed electronically using a method for electronic signatures approved by the commission. ((Supervision shall not be construed to necessarily require the personal presence of the supervising physician or physicians at the place where services are rendered.))

(3) Applicants for licensure shall file an application with the commission on a form prepared by the secretary with the approval of the commission, detailing the education, training, and experience of the physician assistant and such other information as the commission may require. The application shall be accompanied by a fee determined by the secretary as provided in RCW 43.70.250 and 43.70.280. A surcharge of fifty dollars per year shall be charged on each license renewal or issuance of a new license to be collected by the department and deposited into the impaired physician account for physician assistant participation in the ((impaired)) physician health program. Each applicant shall furnish proof satisfactory to the commission of the following:

(a) That the applicant has completed an accredited physician assistant program approved by the commission and is eligible to take the examination approved by the commission;

(b) That the applicant is of good moral character; and

(c) That the applicant is physically and mentally capable of practicing medicine as a physician assistant with reasonable skill and safety. The commission may require an applicant to submit to such examination or examinations as it deems necessary to determine an applicant's physical or mental capability, or both, to safely practice as a physician assistant.

(4)(a) The commission may approve, deny, or take other disciplinary action upon the application for license as provided in the Uniform Disciplinary Act, chapter 18.130 RCW.

(b) The license shall be renewed as determined under RCW 43.70.250 and 43.70.280. The commission shall request licensees to submit information about their current professional practice at the time of license renewal and licensees must provide the information requested. This information may include practice setting, medical specialty, or other relevant data determined by the commission.

(5) All funds in the impaired physician account shall be paid to the contract entity within sixty days of deposit.

Sec. 4. RCW 18.71A.025 and 2020 c 80 s 4 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) The uniform disciplinary act, chapter 18.130 RCW, governs the issuance and denial of licenses and the discipline of licensees under this chapter.

(2) The commission shall consult with the board of osteopathic medicine and surgery when investigating allegations of unprofessional conduct against a licensee who ((has a supervising))is supervised by or is collaborating with a physician licensed under chapter 18.57 RCW.

Sec. 5. RCW 18.71A.030 and 2020 c 80 s 5 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) A physician assistant may practice medicine in this state to the extent permitted by the ((practice))collaboration agreement. A physician assistant shall be subject to discipline under chapter 18.130 RCW.

(2)(a) A physician assistant who has completed fewer than 4,000 hours of postgraduate clinical practice must work under the supervision of a participating physician, as described in the collaboration agreement and determined at the practice site. A physician assistant with 4,000 or more hours of postgraduate clinical practice may work in collaboration with a participating physician, if the physician assistant has completed 2,000 or more supervised hours in the physician assistant's chosen specialty.

(3)(a) Physician assistants may provide services that they are competent to perform based on their education, training, and experience and that are consistent with their ((practice))collaboration agreement. The ((supervising physician))participating physician or physicians, or the physician assistant's employer, and the physician assistant shall determine which procedures may be performed and the ((supervision))degree of autonomy under which the procedure is performed.

(b) Physician assistants may practice in any area of medicine or surgery as long as the practice is not beyond the ((supervising physician's own scope of expertise and clinical practice and the practice agreement.

(3) A physician assistant delivering))scope of expertise and clinical practice of the participating physician or physicians or the group of physicians within the department or specialty areas in which the physician assistant practices.

(4) A physician assistant working with an anesthesiologist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010 to deliver general anesthesia or intrathecal anesthesia pursuant to a ((practice))collaboration agreement ((with a physician)) shall show evidence of adequate education and training in the delivery of the type of anesthesia being delivered on ((his or her practice agreement))the physician assistant's collaboration agreement as stipulated by the commission.

Sec. 6. RCW 18.71A.050 and 2020 c 80 s 7 are each amended to read as follows:

No physician or employer who enters into a ((practice))collaboration agreement with a licensed physician assistant in accordance with and within the terms of any permission granted by the commission is considered as aiding and abetting an unlicensed person to practice medicine. The ((supervising physician and)) physician assistant shall ((each)) retain ((professional and personal)) responsibility for any act which constitutes the practice of medicine as defined in RCW 18.71.011 or the practice of osteopathic medicine and surgery as defined in RCW 18.57.001 when performed by the physician assistant.

Sec. 7. RCW 18.71A.090 and 2020 c 80 s 8 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) A physician assistant may sign and attest to any certificates, cards, forms, or other required documentation that the physician assistant's ((supervising))participating physician or physician group may sign, provided that it is within the physician assistant's scope of practice and is consistent with the terms of the physician assistant's ((practice))collaboration agreement as required by this chapter.

(2) Notwithstanding any federal law, rule, or medical staff bylaw provision to the contrary, a physician is not required to countersign orders written in a patient's clinical record or an official form by a physician assistant with whom the physician has a ((practice))collaboration agreement.

Sec. 8. RCW 18.71A.120 and 2020 c 80 s 6 are each amended to read as follows:

(1)(a) Prior to commencing practice, a physician assistant licensed in Washington state must enter into a ((practice))collaboration agreement ((with a physician or group of physicians, at least one of whom must be working in a supervisory capacity.

(a)))that identifies at least one participating physician and that is signed by one or more participating physicians or the physician assistant's employer.

(c) If a participating physician is not a signatory to the collaboration agreement, the participating physician must be provided notice of the agreement and an opportunity to decline participation. Entering into a ((practice))collaboration agreement is voluntary for the physician assistant and the ((supervising))participating physician or employer. A physician may not be compelled to participate in a ((practice))collaboration agreement as a condition of employment.

(((b)))(d) Prior to entering into the ((practice))collaboration agreement, the participating physician((,))or physicians, employer, or their designee must verify the physician assistant's credentials.

(((c)))(e) The protections of RCW 43.70.075 apply to any participating physician or employer who reports to the commission acts of retaliation or reprisal for declining to sign a ((practice))collaboration agreement.

(((d)))(f) The ((practice))collaboration agreement must be ((maintained by the physician assistant's employer or at his or her place of work and must be))available either electronically or on paper at the physician assistant's primary location of practice and made available to the commission upon request.

(((e)))(g) The commission shall develop a model ((practice))collaboration agreement.

(((f)))(h) The commission shall establish administrative procedures, administrative requirements, and fees as provided in RCW 43.70.250 and 43.70.280.

(2) A ((practice))collaboration agreement must include all of the following:

(a) The duties and responsibilities of the physician assistant((, the supervising physician, and alternate))and the participating physician or physicians. The ((practice))collaboration agreement must describe the supervision or collaboration requirements for specified procedures or areas of practice, depending on the number of postgraduate clinical practice hours completed. The ((practice))collaboration agreement may only include acts, tasks, or functions that the physician assistant ((and supervising physician or alternate physicians are))is qualified to perform by education, training, or experience ((and that are)). The acts, tasks, or functions included in the collaboration agreement must also be within the scope of expertise and clinical practice of ((both the physician assistant and the supervising physician or alternate physicians))either the participating physician or physicians or the group of physicians within the department or specialty areas in which the physician assistant is practicing, unless otherwise authorized by law, rule, or the commission;

(b) A process between the physician assistant and ((supervising))participating physician or ((alternate)) physicians for communication, availability, and decision making when providing medical treatment to a patient or in the event of an acute health care crisis not previously covered by the ((practice))collaboration agreement, such as a flu pandemic or other unforeseen emergency. Communications may occur in person, electronically, by telephone, or by an alternate method;

(c) If there is only one participating physician ((party to))identified in the ((practice))collaboration agreement, a protocol for designating ((an alternate))another participating physician for consultation in situations in which the physician is not available;

(d) The signature of the physician assistant and the signature or signatures of the ((supervising physician. A practice agreement may be signed electronically using a method for electronic signatures approved by the commission; and

(e)))participating physician or physicians, or employer;

(g) A termination provision. A physician assistant or physician may terminate the ((practice))collaboration agreement as it applies to a single ((supervising))participating physician without terminating the agreement with respect to the remaining participating physicians. If the termination results in no ((supervising))participating physician being designated on the agreement, a new ((supervising))participating physician must be designated for the agreement to be valid.

(i) Except as provided in (((e)))(g)(ii) of this subsection, the physician assistant or ((supervising))participating physician must provide written notice at least thirty days prior to the termination.

(ii) The physician assistant or ((supervising))participating physician may terminate the ((practice))collaboration agreement immediately due to good faith concerns regarding unprofessional conduct or failure to practice medicine while exercising reasonable skill and safety.

(3) ((A practice agreement may be amended for any reason, such as to add or remove supervising physicians or alternate physicians or to amend the duties and responsibilities of the physician assistant.

(4)))The physician assistant is responsible for tracking the number of postgraduate clinical hours completed, including the number of hours completed in a chosen specialty.

(5) Whenever a physician assistant is practicing in a manner inconsistent with the ((practice))collaboration agreement, the commission may take disciplinary action under chapter 18.130 RCW.

(((5)))(6) Whenever a physician is subject to disciplinary action under chapter 18.130 RCW related to the practice of a physician assistant, the case must be referred to the appropriate disciplining authority.

(((6)))(7) A physician assistant ((or)), physician, or employer may participate in more than one ((practice))collaboration agreement if ((he or she))the physician or employer is reasonably able to fulfill the duties and responsibilities in each agreement.

(((7) A physician may supervise no more than ten physician assistants. A physician may petition the commission for a waiver of this limit. The commission shall automatically grant a waiver to any physician who possesses, on July 1, 2021, a valid waiver to supervise more than ten physician assistants. A physician granted a waiver under this subsection may not supervise more physician assistants than the physician is able to adequately supervise.

(c) Notice if the practice agreement is terminated))(8) Nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting physician assistants from owning their own practice or clinic.

Sec. 9. RCW 18.71A.150 and 2020 c 80 s 11 are each amended to read as follows:

The commission and the board of osteopathic medicine and surgery shall adopt any rules necessary to implement ((chapter 80, Laws of 2020))requirements related to collaboration agreements entered into under this chapter.

NEW SECTION.  Sec. 10. A new section is added to chapter 18.71A RCW to read as follows:

A physician assistant practicing under a practice agreement that was entered into before July 1, 2025, may continue to practice under the practice agreement until the physician assistant enters into a collaboration agreement, as defined in RCW 18.71A.010. A physician assistant described in this section shall enter into a collaboration agreement not later than the date on which the physician assistant's license is due for renewal or July 1, 2025, whichever is later.

NEW SECTION.  Sec. 11. A new section is added to chapter 48.43 RCW to read as follows:

This chapter authorizes carriers to reimburse employers of physician assistants for covered services rendered by licensed physician assistants. Payment for services within the physician assistant's scope of practice must be made when ordered or performed by a physician assistant if the same services would have been covered if ordered or performed by a physician. Physician assistants or their employers, who are billing on behalf of the physician assistant, are authorized to bill for and receive direct payment for the services delivered by physician assistants. A carrier may not impose a practice, education, or collaboration requirement that is inconsistent with or more restrictive than state laws or regulations governing physician assistants.

Sec. 12. RCW 51.28.100 and 2020 c 80 s 39 are each amended to read as follows:

The department shall accept the signature of a physician assistant on any certificate, card, form, or other documentation required by the department that the physician assistant's ((supervising))participating physician or physicians, as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, may sign, provided that it is within the physician assistant's scope of practice, and is consistent with the terms of the physician assistant's ((practice))collaboration agreement as required by chapter 18.71A RCW. Consistent with the terms of this section, the authority of a physician assistant to sign such certificates, cards, forms, or other documentation includes, but is not limited to, the execution of the certificate required in RCW 51.28.020. A physician assistant may not rate a worker's permanent partial disability under RCW 51.32.055.

Sec. 13. RCW 10.77.175 and 2022 c 210 s 22 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Conditional release planning should start at admission and proceed in coordination between the department and the person's managed care organization, or behavioral health administrative services organization if the person is not eligible for medical assistance under chapter 74.09 RCW. If needed, the department shall assist the person to enroll in medical assistance in suspense status under RCW 74.09.670. The state hospital liaison for the managed care organization or behavioral health administrative services organization shall facilitate conditional release planning in collaboration with the department.

(2) Less restrictive alternative treatment pursuant to a conditional release order, at a minimum, includes the following services:

(a) Assignment of a care coordinator;

(b) An intake evaluation with the provider of the conditional treatment;

(c) A psychiatric evaluation or a substance use disorder evaluation, or both;

(d) A schedule of regular contacts with the provider of the less restrictive alternative treatment services for the duration of the order;

(e) A transition plan addressing access to continued services at the expiration of the order;

(f) An individual crisis plan;

(g) Consultation about the formation of a mental health advance directive under chapter 71.32 RCW;

(h) Appointment of a transition team under RCW 10.77.150; and

(i) Notification to the care coordinator assigned in (a) of this subsection and to the transition team as provided in RCW 10.77.150 if reasonable efforts to engage the client fail to produce substantial compliance with court-ordered treatment conditions.

(3) Less restrictive alternative treatment pursuant to a conditional release order may additionally include requirements to participate in the following services:

(a) Medication management;

(b) Psychotherapy;

(c) Nursing;

(d) Substance use disorder counseling;

(e) Residential treatment;

(f) Partial hospitalization;

(g) Intensive outpatient treatment;

(h) Support for housing, benefits, education, and employment; and

(i) Periodic court review.

(4) Nothing in this section prohibits items in subsection (2) of this section from beginning before the conditional release of the individual.

(5) If the person was provided with involuntary medication under RCW 10.77.094 or pursuant to a judicial order during the involuntary commitment period, the less restrictive alternative treatment pursuant to the conditional release order may authorize the less restrictive alternative treatment provider or its designee to administer involuntary antipsychotic medication to the person if the provider has attempted and failed to obtain the informed consent of the person and there is a concurring medical opinion approving the medication by a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or physician or physician assistant in consultation with an independent mental health professional with prescribing authority.

(6) Less restrictive alternative treatment pursuant to a conditional release order must be administered by a provider that is certified or licensed to provide or coordinate the full scope of services required under the less restrictive alternative order and that has agreed to assume this responsibility.

(7) The care coordinator assigned to a person ordered to less restrictive alternative treatment pursuant to a conditional release order must submit an individualized plan for the person's treatment services to the court that entered the order. An initial plan must be submitted as soon as possible following the intake evaluation and a revised plan must be submitted upon any subsequent modification in which a type of service is removed from or added to the treatment plan.

(8) A care coordinator may disclose information and records related to mental health treatment under RCW 70.02.230(2)(k) for purposes of implementing less restrictive alternative treatment pursuant to a conditional release order.

(9) For the purpose of this section, "care coordinator" means a representative from the department of social and health services who coordinates the activities of less restrictive alternative treatment pursuant to a conditional release order. The care coordinator coordinates activities with the person's transition team that are necessary for enforcement and continuation of the conditional release order and is responsible for coordinating service activities with other agencies and establishing and maintaining a therapeutic relationship with the individual on a continuing basis.

Sec. 14. RCW 18.71.030 and 2021 c 247 s 1 are each amended to read as follows:

Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to apply to or interfere in any way with the practice of religion or any kind of treatment by prayer; nor shall anything in this chapter be construed to prohibit:

(1) The furnishing of medical assistance in cases of emergency requiring immediate attention;

(2) The domestic administration of family remedies;

(3) The administration of oral medication of any nature to students by public school district employees or private elementary or secondary school employees as provided for in chapter 28A.210 RCW;

(4) The practice of dentistry, osteopathic medicine and surgery, nursing, chiropractic, podiatric medicine and surgery, optometry, naturopathy, or any other healing art licensed under the methods or means permitted by such license;

(5) The practice of medicine in this state by any commissioned medical officer serving in the armed forces of the United States or public health service or any medical officer on duty with the United States veterans administration while such medical officer is engaged in the performance of the duties prescribed for him or her by the laws and regulations of the United States;

(6) The consultation through telemedicine or other means by a practitioner, licensed by another state or territory in which he or she resides, with a practitioner licensed in this state who has responsibility for the diagnosis and treatment of the patient within this state;

(7) The in-person practice of medicine by any practitioner licensed by another state or territory in which he or she resides, provided that such practitioner shall not open an office or appoint a place of meeting patients or receiving calls within this state;

(8) The practice of medicine by a person who is a regular student in a school of medicine approved and accredited by the commission if:

(a) The performance of such services is only pursuant to a regular course of instruction or assignments from his or her instructor; or

(b) Such services are performed only under the supervision and control of a person licensed pursuant to this chapter; or

(c)(i) Such services are performed without compensation or expectation of compensation as part of a volunteer activity;

(ii) The student is under the direct supervision and control of a pharmacist licensed under chapter 18.64 RCW, an osteopathic physician and surgeon licensed under chapter 18.57 RCW, or a registered nurse or advanced registered nurse practitioner licensed under chapter 18.79 RCW;

(iii) The services the student performs are within the scope of practice of: (A) A physician licensed under this chapter; and (B) the person supervising the student;

(iv) The school in which the student is enrolled verifies the student has demonstrated competency through his or her education and training to perform the services; and

(v) The student provides proof of current malpractice insurance to the volunteer activity organizer prior to performing any services;

(9) The practice of medicine by a person serving a period of postgraduate medical training in a program of clinical medical training sponsored by a college or university in this state or by a hospital accredited in this state, however, the performance of such services shall be only pursuant to his or her duties as a trainee;

(10) The practice of medicine by a person who is regularly enrolled in a physician assistant program approved by the commission, however, the performance of such services shall be only pursuant to a regular course of instruction in said program and such services are performed only under the supervision and control of a person licensed pursuant to this chapter;

(11) The practice of medicine by a licensed physician assistant which practice is performed under the supervision ((and control)) of or in collaboration with a physician licensed pursuant to this chapter;

(12) The practice of medicine, in any part of this state which shares a common border with Canada and which is surrounded on three sides by water, by a physician licensed to practice medicine and surgery in Canada or any province or territory thereof;

(13) The administration of nondental anesthesia by a dentist who has completed a residency in anesthesiology at a school of medicine approved by the commission, however, a dentist allowed to administer nondental anesthesia shall do so only under authorization of the patient's attending surgeon, obstetrician, or psychiatrist, and the commission has jurisdiction to discipline a dentist practicing under this exemption and enjoin or suspend such dentist from the practice of nondental anesthesia according to this chapter and chapter 18.130 RCW;

(14) Emergency lifesaving service rendered by a physician's trained advanced emergency medical technician and paramedic, as defined in RCW 18.71.200, if the emergency lifesaving service is rendered under the responsible supervision and control of a licensed physician;

(15) The provision of clean, intermittent bladder catheterization for students by public school district employees or private school employees as provided for in RCW 18.79.290 and 28A.210.280.

Sec. 15. RCW 7.68.030 and 2020 c 80 s 12 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) It shall be the duty of the director to establish and administer a program of benefits to innocent victims of criminal acts within the terms and limitations of this chapter. The director may apply for and, subject to appropriation, expend federal funds under Public Law 98-473 and any other federal program providing financial assistance to state crime victim compensation programs. The federal funds shall be deposited in the state general fund and may be expended only for purposes authorized by applicable federal law.

(2) The director shall:

(a) Establish and adopt rules governing the administration of this chapter in accordance with chapter 34.05 RCW;

(b) Regulate the proof of accident and extent thereof, the proof of death, and the proof of relationship and the extent of dependency;

(c) Supervise the medical, surgical, and hospital treatment to the intent that it may be in all cases efficient and up to the recognized standard of modern surgery;

(d) Issue proper receipts for moneys received and certificates for benefits accrued or accruing;

(e) Designate a medical director who is licensed under chapter 18.57 or 18.71 RCW;

(f) Supervise the providing of prompt and efficient care and treatment, including care provided by physician assistants governed by the provisions of chapter 18.71A RCW, ((acting under a supervising physician,)) including chiropractic care, and including care provided by licensed advanced registered nurse practitioners, to victims at the least cost consistent with promptness and efficiency, without discrimination or favoritism, and with as great uniformity as the various and diverse surrounding circumstances and locations of industries will permit and to that end shall, from time to time, establish and adopt and supervise the administration of printed forms, electronic communications, rules, regulations, and practices for the furnishing of such care and treatment. The medical coverage decisions of the department do not constitute a "rule" as used in RCW 34.05.010(16), nor are such decisions subject to the rule-making provisions of chapter 34.05 RCW except that criteria for establishing medical coverage decisions shall be adopted by rule. The department may recommend to a victim particular health care services and providers where specialized treatment is indicated or where cost-effective payment levels or rates are obtained by the department, and the department may enter into contracts for goods and services including, but not limited to, durable medical equipment so long as statewide access to quality service is maintained for injured victims;

(g) In consultation with interested persons, establish and, in his or her discretion, periodically change as may be necessary, and make available a fee schedule of the maximum charges to be made by any physician, surgeon, chiropractor, hospital, druggist, licensed advanced registered nurse practitioner, ((and)) physician assistants as defined in chapter 18.71A RCW, acting under ((a supervising physician))the supervision of or in coordination with a participating physician, as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, or other agency or person rendering services to victims. The department shall coordinate with other state purchasers of health care services to establish as much consistency and uniformity in billing and coding practices as possible, taking into account the unique requirements and differences between programs. No service covered under this title, including services provided to victims, whether aliens or other victims, who are not residing in the United States at the time of receiving the services, shall be charged or paid at a rate or rates exceeding those specified in such fee schedule, and no contract providing for greater fees shall be valid as to the excess. The establishment of such a schedule, exclusive of conversion factors, does not constitute "agency action" as used in RCW 34.05.010(3), nor does such a fee schedule constitute a "rule" as used in RCW 34.05.010(16). Payments for providers' services under the fee schedule established pursuant to this subsection (2) may not be less than payments provided for comparable services under the workers' compensation program under Title 51 RCW, provided:

(i) If the department, using caseload estimates, projects a deficit in funding for the program by July 15th for the following fiscal year, the director shall notify the governor and the appropriate committees of the legislature and request funding sufficient to continue payments to not less than payments provided for comparable services under the workers' compensation program. If sufficient funding is not provided to continue payments to not less than payments provided for comparable services under the workers' compensation program, the director shall reduce the payments under the fee schedule for the following fiscal year based on caseload estimates and available funding, except payments may not be reduced to less than seventy percent of payments for comparable services under the workers' compensation program;

(ii) If an unforeseeable catastrophic event results in insufficient funding to continue payments to not less than payments provided for comparable services under the workers' compensation program, the director shall reduce the payments under the fee schedule to not less than seventy percent of payments provided for comparable services under the workers' compensation program, provided that the reduction may not be more than necessary to fund benefits under the program; and

(iii) Once sufficient funding is provided or otherwise available, the director shall increase the payments under the fee schedule to not less than payments provided for comparable services under the workers' compensation program;

(h) Make a record of the commencement of every disability and the termination thereof and, when bills are rendered for the care and treatment of injured victims, shall approve and pay those which conform to the adopted rules, regulations, established fee schedules, and practices of the director and may reject any bill or item thereof incurred in violation of the principles laid down in this section or the rules, regulations, or the established fee schedules and rules and regulations adopted under it.

(3) The director and his or her authorized assistants:

(a) Have power to issue subpoenas to enforce the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production and examination of books, papers, photographs, tapes, and records before the department in connection with any claim made to the department or any billing submitted to the department. The superior court has the power to enforce any such subpoena by proper proceedings;

(b)(i) May apply for and obtain a superior court order approving and authorizing a subpoena in advance of its issuance. The application may be made in the county where the subpoenaed person resides or is found, or the county where the subpoenaed records or documents are located, or in Thurston county. The application must (A) state that an order is sought pursuant to this subsection; (B) adequately specify the records, documents, or testimony; and (C) declare under oath that an investigation is being conducted for a lawfully authorized purpose related to an investigation within the department's authority and that the subpoenaed documents or testimony are reasonably related to an investigation within the department's authority.

(ii) Where the application under this subsection (3)(b) is made to the satisfaction of the court, the court must issue an order approving the subpoena. An order under this subsection constitutes authority of law for the agency to subpoena the records or testimony.

(iii) The director and his or her authorized assistants may seek approval and a court may issue an order under this subsection without prior notice to any person, including the person to whom the subpoena is directed and the person who is the subject of an investigation.

(4) In all hearings, actions, or proceedings before the department, any physician or licensed advanced registered nurse practitioner having theretofore examined or treated the claimant may be required to testify fully regarding such examination or treatment, and shall not be exempt from so testifying by reason of the relation of the physician or licensed advanced registered nurse practitioner to the patient.

Sec. 16. RCW 51.04.030 and 2020 c 80 s 38 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) The director shall supervise the providing of prompt and efficient care and treatment, including care provided by physician assistants governed by the provisions of chapter 18.71A RCW, ((acting under a supervising physician,)) including chiropractic care, and including care provided by licensed advanced registered nurse practitioners, to workers injured during the course of their employment at the least cost consistent with promptness and efficiency, without discrimination or favoritism, and with as great uniformity as the various and diverse surrounding circumstances and locations of industries will permit and to that end shall, from time to time, establish and adopt and supervise the administration of printed forms, rules, regulations, and practices for the furnishing of such care and treatment: PROVIDED, That the medical coverage decisions of the department do not constitute a "rule" as used in RCW 34.05.010(16), nor are such decisions subject to the rule-making provisions of chapter 34.05 RCW except that criteria for establishing medical coverage decisions shall be adopted by rule after consultation with the workers' compensation advisory committee established in RCW 51.04.110: PROVIDED FURTHER, That the department may recommend to an injured worker particular health care services and providers where specialized treatment is indicated or where cost-effective payment levels or rates are obtained by the department: AND PROVIDED FURTHER, That the department may enter into contracts for goods and services including, but not limited to, durable medical equipment so long as statewide access to quality service is maintained for injured workers.

(2) The director shall, in consultation with interested persons, establish and, in his or her discretion, periodically change as may be necessary, and make available a fee schedule of the maximum charges to be made by any physician, surgeon, chiropractor, hospital, druggist, licensed advanced registered nurse practitioner, physician((s')) assistants as defined in chapter 18.71A RCW, acting under ((a supervising physician))the supervision of or in coordination with a participating physician, as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, or other agency or person rendering services to injured workers. The department shall coordinate with other state purchasers of health care services to establish as much consistency and uniformity in billing and coding practices as possible, taking into account the unique requirements and differences between programs. No service covered under this title, including services provided to injured workers, whether aliens or other injured workers, who are not residing in the United States at the time of receiving the services, shall be charged or paid at a rate or rates exceeding those specified in such fee schedule, and no contract providing for greater fees shall be valid as to the excess. The establishment of such a schedule, exclusive of conversion factors, does not constitute "agency action" as used in RCW 34.05.010(3), nor does such a fee schedule and its associated billing or payment instructions and policies constitute a "rule" as used in RCW 34.05.010(16).

(3) The director or self-insurer, as the case may be, shall make a record of the commencement of every disability and the termination thereof and, when bills are rendered for the care and treatment of injured workers, shall approve and pay those which conform to the adopted rules, regulations, established fee schedules, and practices of the director and may reject any bill or item thereof incurred in violation of the principles laid down in this section or the rules, regulations, or the established fee schedules and rules and regulations adopted under it.

Sec. 17. RCW 69.50.101 and 2023 c 365 s 2 and 2023 c 220 s 6 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.

(((a) [(1)]))(1) "Administer" means to apply a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, directly to the body of a patient or research subject by:

(((1) [(a)]))(a) a practitioner authorized to prescribe (or, by the practitioner's authorized agent); or

(((2) [(b)]))(b) the patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner.

(((b) [(2)]))(2) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseperson, or employee of the carrier or warehouseperson.

(((c) [(3)]))(3) "Board" means the Washington state liquor and cannabis board.

(((d) [(4)]))(4) "Cannabis" means all parts of the plant Cannabis, whether growing or not, with a THC concentration greater than 0.3 percent on a dry weight basis during the growing cycle through harvest and usable cannabis. "Cannabis" does not include hemp or industrial hemp as defined in RCW 15.140.020, or seeds used for licensed hemp production under chapter 15.140 RCW.

(((e) [(5)]))(5) "Cannabis concentrates" means products consisting wholly or in part of the resin extracted from any part of the plant Cannabis and having a THC concentration greater than ten percent.

(((f) [(6)]))(6) "Cannabis processor" means a person licensed by the board to process cannabis into cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products, package and label cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products for sale in retail outlets, and sell cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products at wholesale to cannabis retailers.

(((g) [(7)]))(7) "Cannabis producer" means a person licensed by the board to produce and sell cannabis at wholesale to cannabis processors and other cannabis producers.

(((h)(1) [(8)(a)]))(8)(a) "Cannabis products" means useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products as defined in this section, including any product intended to be consumed or absorbed inside the body by any means including inhalation, ingestion, or insertion, with any detectable amount of THC.

(((2) [(b)]))(b) "Cannabis products" also means any product containing only THC content.

(((3) [(c)]))(c) "Cannabis products" does not include cannabis health and beauty aids as defined in RCW 69.50.575 or products approved by the United States food and drug administration.

(((i) [(9)]))(9) "Cannabis researcher" means a person licensed by the board to produce, process, and possess cannabis for the purposes of conducting research on cannabis and cannabis-derived drug products.

(((j) [(10)]))(10) "Cannabis retailer" means a person licensed by the board to sell cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products in a retail outlet.

(((k) [(11)]))(11) "Cannabis-infused products" means products that contain cannabis or cannabis extracts, are intended for human use, are derived from cannabis as defined in subsection (((d) [(4)]))(4) of this section, and have a THC concentration no greater than ten percent. The term "cannabis-infused products" does not include either useable cannabis or cannabis concentrates.

(((l) [(12)]))(12) "CBD concentration" has the meaning provided in RCW 69.51A.010.

(((m) [(13)]))(13) "CBD product" means any product containing or consisting of cannabidiol.

(((n) [(14)]))(14) "Commission" means the pharmacy quality assurance commission.

(((o) [(15)]))(15) "Controlled substance" means a drug, substance, or immediate precursor included in Schedules I through V as set forth in federal or state laws, or federal or commission rules, but does not include hemp or industrial hemp as defined in RCW 15.140.020.

(((p)(1) [(16)(a)]))(16)(a) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II and:

(i) that has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system substantially similar to the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance included in Schedule I or II; or

(ii) with respect to a particular individual, that the individual represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system substantially similar to the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance included in Schedule I or II.

(((2) [(b)]))(b) The term does not include:

(i) a controlled substance;

(ii) a substance for which there is an approved new drug application;

(iii) a substance with respect to which an exemption is in effect for investigational use by a particular person under Section 505 of the federal food, drug, and cosmetic act, 21 U.S.C. Sec. 355, or chapter 69.77 RCW to the extent conduct with respect to the substance is pursuant to the exemption; or

(iv) any substance to the extent not intended for human consumption before an exemption takes effect with respect to the substance.

(((q) [(17)]))(17) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual or constructive transfer from one person to another of a substance, whether or not there is an agency relationship.

(((r) [(18)]))(18) "Department" means the department of health.

(((s) [(19)]))(19) "Designated provider" has the meaning provided in RCW 69.51A.010.

(((t) [(20)]))(20) "Dispense" means the interpretation of a prescription or order for a controlled substance and, pursuant to that prescription or order, the proper selection, measuring, compounding, labeling, or packaging necessary to prepare that prescription or order for delivery.

(((u) [(21)]))(21) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

(((v) [(22)]))(22) "Distribute" means to deliver other than by administering or dispensing a controlled substance.

(((w) [(23)]))(23) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.

(((x) [(24)]))(24) "Drug" means (((1) [(a)]))(a) a controlled substance recognized as a drug in the official United States pharmacopoeia/national formulary or the official homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the United States, or any supplement to them; (((2) [(b)]))(b) controlled substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in individuals or animals; (((3) [(c)]))(c) controlled substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of individuals or animals; and (((4) [(d)]))(d) controlled substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in (((1), (2), or (3) [(a), (b), or (c)]))(a), (b), or (c) of this subsection. The term does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(((y) [(25)]))(25) "Drug enforcement administration" means the drug enforcement administration in the United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

(((z) [(26)]))(26) "Electronic communication of prescription information" means the transmission of a prescription or refill authorization for a drug of a practitioner using computer systems. The term does not include a prescription or refill authorization verbally transmitted by telephone nor a facsimile manually signed by the practitioner.

(((aa) [(27)]))(27) "Immature plant or clone" means a plant or clone that has no flowers, is less than twelve inches in height, and is less than twelve inches in diameter.

(((bb) [(28)]))(28) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

(((1) [(a)]))(a) that the commission has found to be and by rule designates as being the principal compound commonly used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

(((2) [(b)]))(b) that is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of a controlled substance; and

(((3) [(c)]))(c) the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail, or limit the manufacture of the controlled substance.

(((cc) [(29)]))(29) "Isomer" means an optical isomer, but in subsection (((gg)(5) [(33)(e)]))(33)(e) of this section, RCW 69.50.204(((a) (12) and (34) [(1) (l) and (hh)]))(1) (l) and (hh), and 69.50.206(((b)(4) [(2)(d)]))(2)(d), the term includes any geometrical isomer; in RCW 69.50.204(((a) (8) and (42) [(1) (h) and (pp)]))(1) (h) and (pp), and 69.50.210(((c) [(3)]))(3) the term includes any positional isomer; and in RCW 69.50.204(((a)(35) [(1)(ii)]))(1)(ii), 69.50.204(((c) [(3)]))(3), and 69.50.208(((a) [(1)]))(1) the term includes any positional or geometric isomer.

(((dd) [(30)]))(30) "Lot" means a definite quantity of cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused product identified by a lot number, every portion or package of which is uniform within recognized tolerances for the factors that appear in the labeling.

(((ee) [(31)]))(31) "Lot number" must identify the licensee by business or trade name and Washington state unified business identifier number, and the date of harvest or processing for each lot of cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused product.

(((ff) [(32)]))(32) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion, or processing of a controlled substance, either directly or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of its container. The term does not include the preparation, compounding, packaging, repackaging, labeling, or relabeling of a controlled substance:

(((1) [(a)]))(a) by a practitioner as an incident to the practitioner's administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of the practitioner's professional practice; or

(((2) [(b)]))(b) by a practitioner, or by the practitioner's authorized agent under the practitioner's supervision, for the purpose of, or as an incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale.

(((gg) [(33)]))(33) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

(((1) [(a)]))(a) Opium, opium derivative, and any derivative of opium or opium derivative, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation. The term does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium.

(((2) [(b)]))(b) Synthetic opiate and any derivative of synthetic opiate, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of the isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

(((3) [(c)]))(c) Poppy straw and concentrate of poppy straw.

(((4) [(d)]))(d) Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives or ecgonine or their salts have been removed.

(((5) [(e)]))(e) Cocaine, or any salt, isomer, or salt of isomer thereof.

(((6) [(f)]))(f) Cocaine base.

(((7) [(g)]))(g) Ecgonine, or any derivative, salt, isomer, or salt of isomer thereof.

(((8) [(h)]))(h) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any quantity of any substance referred to in (((1) [(a)]))(a) through (((7) [(g)]))(g) of this subsection.

(((hh) [(34)]))(34) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability. The term includes opium, substances derived from opium (opium derivatives), and synthetic opiates. The term does not include, unless specifically designated as controlled under RCW 69.50.201, the dextrorotatory isomer of 3-methoxy-n-methylmorphinan and its salts (dextromethorphan). The term includes the racemic and levorotatory forms of dextromethorphan.

(((ii) [(35)]))(35) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.

(((jj) [(36)]))(36) "Package" means a container that has a single unit or group of units.

(((kk) [(37)]))(37) "Person" means individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, association, joint venture, government, governmental subdivision or agency, or any other legal or commercial entity.

(((ll) [(38)]))(38) "Plant" has the meaning provided in RCW 69.51A.010.

(((mm) [(39)]))(39) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

(((nn) [(40)]))(40) "Practitioner" means:

(((1) [(a)]))(a) A physician under chapter 18.71 RCW; a physician assistant under chapter 18.71A RCW; an osteopathic physician and surgeon under chapter 18.57 RCW; an optometrist licensed under chapter 18.53 RCW who is certified by the optometry board under RCW 18.53.010 subject to any limitations in RCW 18.53.010; a dentist under chapter 18.32 RCW; a podiatric physician and surgeon under chapter 18.22 RCW; a veterinarian under chapter 18.92 RCW; a registered nurse, advanced registered nurse practitioner, or licensed practical nurse under chapter 18.79 RCW; a naturopathic physician under chapter 18.36A RCW who is licensed under RCW 18.36A.030 subject to any limitations in RCW 18.36A.040; a pharmacist under chapter 18.64 RCW or a scientific investigator under this chapter, licensed, registered or otherwise permitted insofar as is consistent with those licensing laws to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to or administer a controlled substance in the course of their professional practice or research in this state.

(((2) [(b)]))(b) A pharmacy, hospital or other institution licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to or to administer a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research in this state.

(((3) [(c)]))(c) A physician licensed to practice medicine and surgery, a physician licensed to practice osteopathic medicine and surgery, a dentist licensed to practice dentistry, a podiatric physician and surgeon licensed to practice podiatric medicine and surgery, a licensed physician assistant or a licensed osteopathic physician assistant specifically approved to prescribe controlled substances by his or her state's medical commission or equivalent and his or her ((supervising))participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, an advanced registered nurse practitioner licensed to prescribe controlled substances, or a veterinarian licensed to practice veterinary medicine in any state of the United States.

(((oo) [(41)]))(41) "Prescription" means an order for controlled substances issued by a practitioner duly authorized by law or rule in the state of Washington to prescribe controlled substances within the scope of his or her professional practice for a legitimate medical purpose.

(((pp) [(42)]))(42) "Production" includes the manufacturing, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance.

(((qq) [(43)]))(43) "Qualifying patient" has the meaning provided in RCW 69.51A.010.

(((rr) [(44)]))(44) "Recognition card" has the meaning provided in RCW 69.51A.010.

(((ss) [(45)]))(45) "Retail outlet" means a location licensed by the board for the retail sale of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products.

(((tt) [(46)]))(46) "Secretary" means the secretary of health or the secretary's designee.

(((uu) [(47)]))(47) "Social equity plan" means a plan that addresses at least some of the elements outlined in this subsection (((uu) [(47)]))(47), along with any additional plan components or requirements approved by the board following consultation with the task force created in RCW 69.50.336. The plan may include:

(((1) [(a)]))(a) A statement that indicates how the cannabis licensee will work to promote social equity goals in their community;

(((2) [(b)]))(b) A description of how the cannabis licensee will meet social equity goals as defined in RCW 69.50.335;

(((3) [(c)]))(c) The composition of the workforce the licensee has employed or intends to hire; and

(((4) [(d)]))(d) Business plans involving partnerships or assistance to organizations or residents with connections to populations with a history of high rates of enforcement of cannabis prohibition.

(((vv) [(48)]))(48) "State," unless the context otherwise requires, means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or a territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

(((ww) [(49)]))(49) "THC concentration" means percent of tetrahydrocannabinol content of any part of the plant Cannabis, or per volume or weight of cannabis product, or the combined percent of tetrahydrocannabinol and tetrahydrocannabinolic acid in any part of the plant Cannabis regardless of moisture content.

(((xx) [(50)]))(50) "Ultimate user" means an individual who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for the individual's own use or for the use of a member of the individual's household or for administering to an animal owned by the individual or by a member of the individual's household.

(((yy) [(51)]))(51) "Unit" means an individual consumable item within a package of one or more consumable items in solid, liquid, gas, or any form intended for human consumption.

(((zz) [(52)]))(52) "Useable cannabis" means dried cannabis flowers. The term "useable cannabis" does not include either cannabis-infused products or cannabis concentrates.

(((aaa) [(53)]))(53) "Youth access" means the level of interest persons under the age of twenty-one may have in a vapor product, as well as the degree to which the product is available or appealing to such persons, and the likelihood of initiation, use, or addiction by adolescents and young adults.

Sec. 18. RCW 71.05.020 and 2023 c 433 s 3 and 2023 c 425 s 20 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.

(1) "23-hour crisis relief center" has the same meaning as under RCW 71.24.025;

(2) "Admission" or "admit" means a decision by a physician, physician assistant, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner that a person should be examined or treated as a patient in a hospital;

(3) "Alcoholism" means a disease, characterized by a dependency on alcoholic beverages, loss of control over the amount and circumstances of use, symptoms of tolerance, physiological or psychological withdrawal, or both, if use is reduced or discontinued, and impairment of health or disruption of social or economic functioning;

(4) "Antipsychotic medications" means that class of drugs primarily used to treat serious manifestations of mental illness associated with thought disorders, which includes, but is not limited to atypical antipsychotic medications;

(5) "Approved substance use disorder treatment program" means a program for persons with a substance use disorder provided by a treatment program certified by the department as meeting standards adopted under chapter 71.24 RCW;

(6) "Attending staff" means any person on the staff of a public or private agency having responsibility for the care and treatment of a patient;

(7) "Authority" means the Washington state health care authority;

(8) "Behavioral health disorder" means either a mental disorder as defined in this section, a substance use disorder as defined in this section, or a co-occurring mental disorder and substance use disorder;

(9) "Behavioral health service provider" means a public or private agency that provides mental health, substance use disorder, or co-occurring disorder services to persons with behavioral health disorders as defined under this section and receives funding from public sources. This includes, but is not limited to: Hospitals licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW; evaluation and treatment facilities as defined in this section; community mental health service delivery systems or community behavioral health programs as defined in RCW 71.24.025; licensed or certified behavioral health agencies under RCW 71.24.037; facilities conducting competency evaluations and restoration under chapter 10.77 RCW; approved substance use disorder treatment programs as defined in this section; secure withdrawal management and stabilization facilities as defined in this section; and correctional facilities operated by state and local governments;

(10) "Co-occurring disorder specialist" means an individual possessing an enhancement granted by the department of health under chapter 18.205 RCW that certifies the individual to provide substance use disorder counseling subject to the practice limitations under RCW 18.205.105;

(11) "Commitment" means the determination by a court that a person should be detained for a period of either evaluation or treatment, or both, in an inpatient or a less restrictive setting;

(12) "Community behavioral health agency" has the same meaning as "licensed or certified behavioral health agency" defined in RCW 71.24.025;

(13) "Conditional release" means a revocable modification of a commitment, which may be revoked upon violation of any of its terms;

(14) "Crisis stabilization unit" means a short-term facility or a portion of a facility licensed or certified by the department, such as an evaluation and treatment facility or a hospital, which has been designed to assess, diagnose, and treat individuals experiencing an acute crisis without the use of long-term hospitalization, or to determine the need for involuntary commitment of an individual;

(15) "Custody" means involuntary detention under the provisions of this chapter or chapter 10.77 RCW, uninterrupted by any period of unconditional release from commitment from a facility providing involuntary care and treatment;

(16) "Department" means the department of health;

(17) "Designated crisis responder" means a mental health professional appointed by the county, by an entity appointed by the county, or by the authority in consultation with a federally recognized Indian tribe or after meeting and conferring with an Indian health care provider, to perform the duties specified in this chapter;

(18) "Detention" or "detain" means the lawful confinement of a person, under the provisions of this chapter;

(19) "Developmental disabilities professional" means a person who has specialized training and three years of experience in directly treating or working with persons with developmental disabilities and is a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychologist, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or social worker, and such other developmental disabilities professionals as may be defined by rules adopted by the secretary of the department of social and health services;

(20) "Developmental disability" means that condition defined in RCW 71A.10.020(6);

(21) "Director" means the director of the authority;

(22) "Discharge" means the termination of hospital medical authority. The commitment may remain in place, be terminated, or be amended by court order;

(23) "Drug addiction" means a disease, characterized by a dependency on psychoactive chemicals, loss of control over the amount and circumstances of use, symptoms of tolerance, physiological or psychological withdrawal, or both, if use is reduced or discontinued, and impairment of health or disruption of social or economic functioning;

(24) "Evaluation and treatment facility" means any facility which can provide directly, or by direct arrangement with other public or private agencies, emergency evaluation and treatment, outpatient care, and timely and appropriate inpatient care to persons suffering from a mental disorder, and which is licensed or certified as such by the department. The authority may certify single beds as temporary evaluation and treatment beds under RCW 71.05.745. A physically separate and separately operated portion of a state hospital may be designated as an evaluation and treatment facility. A facility which is part of, or operated by, the department of social and health services or any federal agency will not require certification. No correctional institution or facility, or jail, shall be an evaluation and treatment facility within the meaning of this chapter;

(25) "Gravely disabled" means a condition in which a person, as a result of a behavioral health disorder: (a) Is in danger of serious physical harm resulting from a failure to provide for his or her essential human needs of health or safety; or (b) manifests severe deterioration in routine functioning evidenced by repeated and escalating loss of cognitive or volitional control over his or her actions and is not receiving such care as is essential for his or her health or safety;

(26) "Habilitative services" means those services provided by program personnel to assist persons in acquiring and maintaining life skills and in raising their levels of physical, mental, social, and vocational functioning. Habilitative services include education, training for employment, and therapy. The habilitative process shall be undertaken with recognition of the risk to the public safety presented by the person being assisted as manifested by prior charged criminal conduct;

(27) "Hearing" means any proceeding conducted in open court that conforms to the requirements of RCW 71.05.820;

(28) "History of one or more violent acts" refers to the period of time ten years prior to the filing of a petition under this chapter, excluding any time spent, but not any violent acts committed, in a behavioral health facility, or in confinement as a result of a criminal conviction;

(29) "Imminent" means the state or condition of being likely to occur at any moment or near at hand, rather than distant or remote;

(30) "In need of assisted outpatient treatment" refers to a person who meets the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment established under RCW 71.05.148;

(31) "Individualized service plan" means a plan prepared by a developmental disabilities professional with other professionals as a team, for a person with developmental disabilities, which shall state:

(a) The nature of the person's specific problems, prior charged criminal behavior, and habilitation needs;

(b) The conditions and strategies necessary to achieve the purposes of habilitation;

(c) The intermediate and long-range goals of the habilitation program, with a projected timetable for the attainment;

(d) The rationale for using this plan of habilitation to achieve those intermediate and long-range goals;

(e) The staff responsible for carrying out the plan;

(f) Where relevant in light of past criminal behavior and due consideration for public safety, the criteria for proposed movement to less-restrictive settings, criteria for proposed eventual discharge or release, and a projected possible date for discharge or release; and

(g) The type of residence immediately anticipated for the person and possible future types of residences;

(32) "Intoxicated person" means a person whose mental or physical functioning is substantially impaired as a result of the use of alcohol or other psychoactive chemicals;

(33) "Judicial commitment" means a commitment by a court pursuant to the provisions of this chapter;

(34) "Legal counsel" means attorneys and staff employed by county prosecutor offices or the state attorney general acting in their capacity as legal representatives of public behavioral health service providers under RCW 71.05.130;

(35) "Less restrictive alternative treatment" means a program of individualized treatment in a less restrictive setting than inpatient treatment that includes the services described in RCW 71.05.585. This term includes: Treatment pursuant to a less restrictive alternative treatment order under RCW 71.05.240 or 71.05.320; treatment pursuant to a conditional release under RCW 71.05.340; and treatment pursuant to an assisted outpatient treatment order under RCW 71.05.148;

(36) "Licensed physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine and surgery in the state of Washington;

(37) "Likelihood of serious harm" means:

(a) A substantial risk that: (i) Physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon his or her own person, as evidenced by threats or attempts to commit suicide or inflict physical harm on oneself; (ii) physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon another, as evidenced by behavior which has caused such harm or which places another person or persons in reasonable fear of sustaining such harm; or (iii) physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon the property of others, as evidenced by behavior which has caused substantial loss or damage to the property of others; or

(b) The person has threatened the physical safety of another and has a history of one or more violent acts;

(38) "Medical clearance" means a physician or other health care provider has determined that a person is medically stable and ready for referral to the designated crisis responder;

(39) "Mental disorder" means any organic, mental, or emotional impairment which has substantial adverse effects on a person's cognitive or volitional functions;

(40) "Mental health professional" means an individual practicing within the mental health professional's statutory scope of practice who is:

(a) A psychiatrist, psychologist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, psychiatric nurse, or social worker, as defined in this chapter and chapter 71.34 RCW;

(b) A mental health counselor, mental health counselor associate, marriage and family therapist, or marriage and family therapist associate, as defined in chapter 18.225 RCW; or

(c) A certified or licensed agency affiliated counselor, as defined in chapter 18.19 RCW;

(41) "Peace officer" means a law enforcement official of a public agency or governmental unit, and includes persons specifically given peace officer powers by any state law, local ordinance, or judicial order of appointment;

(42) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed as a physician assistant under chapter 18.71A RCW;

(43) "Private agency" means any person, partnership, corporation, or association that is not a public agency, whether or not financed in whole or in part by public funds, which constitutes an evaluation and treatment facility or private institution, or hospital, or approved substance use disorder treatment program, which is conducted for, or includes a department or ward conducted for, the care and treatment of persons with behavioral health disorders;

(44) "Professional person" means a mental health professional, substance use disorder professional, or designated crisis responder and shall also mean a physician, physician assistant, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, registered nurse, and such others as may be defined by rules adopted by the secretary pursuant to the provisions of this chapter;

(45) "Psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner" means a person who is licensed as an advanced registered nurse practitioner pursuant to chapter 18.79 RCW; and who is board certified in advanced practice psychiatric and mental health nursing;

(46) "Psychiatrist" means a person having a license as a physician and surgeon in this state who has in addition completed three years of graduate training in psychiatry in a program approved by the American medical association or the American osteopathic association and is certified or eligible to be certified by the American board of psychiatry and neurology;

(47) "Psychologist" means a person who has been licensed as a psychologist pursuant to chapter 18.83 RCW;

(48) "Public agency" means any evaluation and treatment facility or institution, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility, approved substance use disorder treatment program, or hospital which is conducted for, or includes a department or ward conducted for, the care and treatment of persons with behavioral health disorders, if the agency is operated directly by federal, state, county, or municipal government, or a combination of such governments;

(49) "Release" means legal termination of the commitment under the provisions of this chapter;

(50) "Resource management services" has the meaning given in chapter 71.24 RCW;

(51) "Secretary" means the secretary of the department of health, or his or her designee;

(52) "Secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility" means a facility operated by either a public or private agency or by the program of an agency which provides care to voluntary individuals and individuals involuntarily detained and committed under this chapter for whom there is a likelihood of serious harm or who are gravely disabled due to the presence of a substance use disorder. Secure withdrawal management and stabilization facilities must:

(a) Provide the following services:

(i) Assessment and treatment, provided by certified substance use disorder professionals or co-occurring disorder specialists;

(ii) Clinical stabilization services;

(iii) Acute or subacute detoxification services for intoxicated individuals; and

(iv) Discharge assistance provided by certified substance use disorder professionals or co-occurring disorder specialists, including facilitating transitions to appropriate voluntary or involuntary inpatient services or to less restrictive alternatives as appropriate for the individual;

(b) Include security measures sufficient to protect the patients, staff, and community; and

(c) Be licensed or certified as such by the department of health;

(53) "Social worker" means a person with a master's or further advanced degree from a social work educational program accredited and approved as provided in RCW 18.320.010;

(54) "Substance use disorder" means a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that an individual continues using the substance despite significant substance-related problems. The diagnosis of a substance use disorder is based on a pathological pattern of behaviors related to the use of the substances;

(55) "Substance use disorder professional" means a person certified as a substance use disorder professional by the department of health under chapter 18.205 RCW;

(56) "Therapeutic court personnel" means the staff of a mental health court or other therapeutic court which has jurisdiction over defendants who are dually diagnosed with mental disorders, including court personnel, probation officers, a court monitor, prosecuting attorney, or defense counsel acting within the scope of therapeutic court duties;

(57) "Treatment records" include registration and all other records concerning persons who are receiving or who at any time have received services for behavioral health disorders, which are maintained by the department of social and health services, the department, the authority, behavioral health administrative services organizations and their staffs, managed care organizations and their staffs, and by treatment facilities. Treatment records include mental health information contained in a medical bill including but not limited to mental health drugs, a mental health diagnosis, provider name, and dates of service stemming from a medical service. Treatment records do not include notes or records maintained for personal use by a person providing treatment services for the department of social and health services, the department, the authority, behavioral health administrative services organizations, managed care organizations, or a treatment facility if the notes or records are not available to others;

(58) "Video," unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, means the delivery of behavioral health services through the use of interactive audio and video technology, permitting real-time communication between a person and a designated crisis responder, for the purpose of evaluation. "Video" does not include the use of audio-only telephone, facsimile, email, or store and forward technology. "Store and forward technology" means use of an asynchronous transmission of a person's medical information from a mental health service provider to the designated crisis responder which results in medical diagnosis, consultation, or treatment;

(59) "Violent act" means behavior that resulted in homicide, attempted suicide, injury, or substantial loss or damage to property.

Sec. 19. RCW 71.05.020 and 2023 c 433 s 4 and 2023 c 425 s 21 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.

(1) "23-hour crisis relief center" has the same meaning as under RCW 71.24.025;

(2) "Admission" or "admit" means a decision by a physician, physician assistant, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner that a person should be examined or treated as a patient in a hospital;

(3) "Alcoholism" means a disease, characterized by a dependency on alcoholic beverages, loss of control over the amount and circumstances of use, symptoms of tolerance, physiological or psychological withdrawal, or both, if use is reduced or discontinued, and impairment of health or disruption of social or economic functioning;

(4) "Antipsychotic medications" means that class of drugs primarily used to treat serious manifestations of mental illness associated with thought disorders, which includes, but is not limited to atypical antipsychotic medications;

(5) "Approved substance use disorder treatment program" means a program for persons with a substance use disorder provided by a treatment program certified by the department as meeting standards adopted under chapter 71.24 RCW;

(6) "Attending staff" means any person on the staff of a public or private agency having responsibility for the care and treatment of a patient;

(7) "Authority" means the Washington state health care authority;

(8) "Behavioral health disorder" means either a mental disorder as defined in this section, a substance use disorder as defined in this section, or a co-occurring mental disorder and substance use disorder;

(9) "Behavioral health service provider" means a public or private agency that provides mental health, substance use disorder, or co-occurring disorder services to persons with behavioral health disorders as defined under this section and receives funding from public sources. This includes, but is not limited to: Hospitals licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW; evaluation and treatment facilities as defined in this section; community mental health service delivery systems or community behavioral health programs as defined in RCW 71.24.025; licensed or certified behavioral health agencies under RCW 71.24.037; facilities conducting competency evaluations and restoration under chapter 10.77 RCW; approved substance use disorder treatment programs as defined in this section; secure withdrawal management and stabilization facilities as defined in this section; and correctional facilities operated by state and local governments;

(10) "Co-occurring disorder specialist" means an individual possessing an enhancement granted by the department of health under chapter 18.205 RCW that certifies the individual to provide substance use disorder counseling subject to the practice limitations under RCW 18.205.105;

(11) "Commitment" means the determination by a court that a person should be detained for a period of either evaluation or treatment, or both, in an inpatient or a less restrictive setting;

(12) "Community behavioral health agency" has the same meaning as "licensed or certified behavioral health agency" defined in RCW 71.24.025;

(13) "Conditional release" means a revocable modification of a commitment, which may be revoked upon violation of any of its terms;

(14) "Crisis stabilization unit" means a short-term facility or a portion of a facility licensed or certified by the department, such as an evaluation and treatment facility or a hospital, which has been designed to assess, diagnose, and treat individuals experiencing an acute crisis without the use of long-term hospitalization, or to determine the need for involuntary commitment of an individual;

(15) "Custody" means involuntary detention under the provisions of this chapter or chapter 10.77 RCW, uninterrupted by any period of unconditional release from commitment from a facility providing involuntary care and treatment;

(16) "Department" means the department of health;

(17) "Designated crisis responder" means a mental health professional appointed by the county, by an entity appointed by the county, or by the authority in consultation with a federally recognized Indian tribe or after meeting and conferring with an Indian health care provider, to perform the duties specified in this chapter;

(18) "Detention" or "detain" means the lawful confinement of a person, under the provisions of this chapter;

(19) "Developmental disabilities professional" means a person who has specialized training and three years of experience in directly treating or working with persons with developmental disabilities and is a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychologist, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or social worker, and such other developmental disabilities professionals as may be defined by rules adopted by the secretary of the department of social and health services;

(20) "Developmental disability" means that condition defined in RCW 71A.10.020(6);

(21) "Director" means the director of the authority;

(22) "Discharge" means the termination of hospital medical authority. The commitment may remain in place, be terminated, or be amended by court order;

(23) "Drug addiction" means a disease, characterized by a dependency on psychoactive chemicals, loss of control over the amount and circumstances of use, symptoms of tolerance, physiological or psychological withdrawal, or both, if use is reduced or discontinued, and impairment of health or disruption of social or economic functioning;

(24) "Evaluation and treatment facility" means any facility which can provide directly, or by direct arrangement with other public or private agencies, emergency evaluation and treatment, outpatient care, and timely and appropriate inpatient care to persons suffering from a mental disorder, and which is licensed or certified as such by the department. The authority may certify single beds as temporary evaluation and treatment beds under RCW 71.05.745. A physically separate and separately operated portion of a state hospital may be designated as an evaluation and treatment facility. A facility which is part of, or operated by, the department of social and health services or any federal agency will not require certification. No correctional institution or facility, or jail, shall be an evaluation and treatment facility within the meaning of this chapter;

(25) "Gravely disabled" means a condition in which a person, as a result of a behavioral health disorder: (a) Is in danger of serious physical harm resulting from a failure to provide for his or her essential human needs of health or safety; or (b) manifests severe deterioration from safe behavior evidenced by repeated and escalating loss of cognitive or volitional control over his or her actions and is not receiving such care as is essential for his or her health or safety;

(26) "Habilitative services" means those services provided by program personnel to assist persons in acquiring and maintaining life skills and in raising their levels of physical, mental, social, and vocational functioning. Habilitative services include education, training for employment, and therapy. The habilitative process shall be undertaken with recognition of the risk to the public safety presented by the person being assisted as manifested by prior charged criminal conduct;

(27) "Hearing" means any proceeding conducted in open court that conforms to the requirements of RCW 71.05.820;

(28) "History of one or more violent acts" refers to the period of time ten years prior to the filing of a petition under this chapter, excluding any time spent, but not any violent acts committed, in a behavioral health facility, or in confinement as a result of a criminal conviction;

(29) "Imminent" means the state or condition of being likely to occur at any moment or near at hand, rather than distant or remote;

(30) "In need of assisted outpatient treatment" refers to a person who meets the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment established under RCW 71.05.148;

(31) "Individualized service plan" means a plan prepared by a developmental disabilities professional with other professionals as a team, for a person with developmental disabilities, which shall state:

(a) The nature of the person's specific problems, prior charged criminal behavior, and habilitation needs;

(b) The conditions and strategies necessary to achieve the purposes of habilitation;

(c) The intermediate and long-range goals of the habilitation program, with a projected timetable for the attainment;

(d) The rationale for using this plan of habilitation to achieve those intermediate and long-range goals;

(e) The staff responsible for carrying out the plan;

(f) Where relevant in light of past criminal behavior and due consideration for public safety, the criteria for proposed movement to less-restrictive settings, criteria for proposed eventual discharge or release, and a projected possible date for discharge or release; and

(g) The type of residence immediately anticipated for the person and possible future types of residences;

(32) "Intoxicated person" means a person whose mental or physical functioning is substantially impaired as a result of the use of alcohol or other psychoactive chemicals;

(33) "Judicial commitment" means a commitment by a court pursuant to the provisions of this chapter;

(34) "Legal counsel" means attorneys and staff employed by county prosecutor offices or the state attorney general acting in their capacity as legal representatives of public behavioral health service providers under RCW 71.05.130;

(35) "Less restrictive alternative treatment" means a program of individualized treatment in a less restrictive setting than inpatient treatment that includes the services described in RCW 71.05.585. This term includes: Treatment pursuant to a less restrictive alternative treatment order under RCW 71.05.240 or 71.05.320; treatment pursuant to a conditional release under RCW 71.05.340; and treatment pursuant to an assisted outpatient treatment order under RCW 71.05.148;

(36) "Licensed physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine and surgery in the state of Washington;

(37) "Likelihood of serious harm" means:

(a) A substantial risk that: (i) Physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon his or her own person, as evidenced by threats or attempts to commit suicide or inflict physical harm on oneself; (ii) physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon another, as evidenced by behavior which has caused harm, substantial pain, or which places another person or persons in reasonable fear of harm to themselves or others; or (iii) physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon the property of others, as evidenced by behavior which has caused substantial loss or damage to the property of others; or

(b) The person has threatened the physical safety of another and has a history of one or more violent acts;

(38) "Medical clearance" means a physician or other health care provider has determined that a person is medically stable and ready for referral to the designated crisis responder;

(39) "Mental disorder" means any organic, mental, or emotional impairment which has substantial adverse effects on a person's cognitive or volitional functions;

(40) "Mental health professional" means an individual practicing within the mental health professional's statutory scope of practice who is:

(a) A psychiatrist, psychologist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, psychiatric nurse, or social worker, as defined in this chapter and chapter 71.34 RCW;

(b) A mental health counselor, mental health counselor associate, marriage and family therapist, or marriage and family therapist associate, as defined in chapter 18.225 RCW; or

(c) A certified or licensed agency affiliated counselor, as defined in chapter 18.19 RCW;

(41) "Peace officer" means a law enforcement official of a public agency or governmental unit, and includes persons specifically given peace officer powers by any state law, local ordinance, or judicial order of appointment;

(42) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed as a physician assistant under chapter 18.71A RCW;

(43) "Private agency" means any person, partnership, corporation, or association that is not a public agency, whether or not financed in whole or in part by public funds, which constitutes an evaluation and treatment facility or private institution, or hospital, or approved substance use disorder treatment program, which is conducted for, or includes a department or ward conducted for, the care and treatment of persons with behavioral health disorders;

(44) "Professional person" means a mental health professional, substance use disorder professional, or designated crisis responder and shall also mean a physician, physician assistant, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, registered nurse, and such others as may be defined by rules adopted by the secretary pursuant to the provisions of this chapter;

(45) "Psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner" means a person who is licensed as an advanced registered nurse practitioner pursuant to chapter 18.79 RCW; and who is board certified in advanced practice psychiatric and mental health nursing;

(46) "Psychiatrist" means a person having a license as a physician and surgeon in this state who has in addition completed three years of graduate training in psychiatry in a program approved by the American medical association or the American osteopathic association and is certified or eligible to be certified by the American board of psychiatry and neurology;

(47) "Psychologist" means a person who has been licensed as a psychologist pursuant to chapter 18.83 RCW;

(48) "Public agency" means any evaluation and treatment facility or institution, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility, approved substance use disorder treatment program, or hospital which is conducted for, or includes a department or ward conducted for, the care and treatment of persons with behavioral health disorders, if the agency is operated directly by federal, state, county, or municipal government, or a combination of such governments;

(49) "Release" means legal termination of the commitment under the provisions of this chapter;

(50) "Resource management services" has the meaning given in chapter 71.24 RCW;

(51) "Secretary" means the secretary of the department of health, or his or her designee;

(52) "Secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility" means a facility operated by either a public or private agency or by the program of an agency which provides care to voluntary individuals and individuals involuntarily detained and committed under this chapter for whom there is a likelihood of serious harm or who are gravely disabled due to the presence of a substance use disorder. Secure withdrawal management and stabilization facilities must:

(a) Provide the following services:

(i) Assessment and treatment, provided by certified substance use disorder professionals or co-occurring disorder specialists;

(ii) Clinical stabilization services;

(iii) Acute or subacute detoxification services for intoxicated individuals; and

(iv) Discharge assistance provided by certified substance use disorder professionals or co-occurring disorder specialists, including facilitating transitions to appropriate voluntary or involuntary inpatient services or to less restrictive alternatives as appropriate for the individual;

(b) Include security measures sufficient to protect the patients, staff, and community; and

(c) Be licensed or certified as such by the department of health;

(53) "Severe deterioration from safe behavior" means that a person will, if not treated, suffer or continue to suffer severe and abnormal mental, emotional, or physical distress, and this distress is associated with significant impairment of judgment, reason, or behavior;

(54) "Social worker" means a person with a master's or further advanced degree from a social work educational program accredited and approved as provided in RCW 18.320.010;

(55) "Substance use disorder" means a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that an individual continues using the substance despite significant substance-related problems. The diagnosis of a substance use disorder is based on a pathological pattern of behaviors related to the use of the substances;

(56) "Substance use disorder professional" means a person certified as a substance use disorder professional by the department of health under chapter 18.205 RCW;

(57) "Therapeutic court personnel" means the staff of a mental health court or other therapeutic court which has jurisdiction over defendants who are dually diagnosed with mental disorders, including court personnel, probation officers, a court monitor, prosecuting attorney, or defense counsel acting within the scope of therapeutic court duties;

(58) "Treatment records" include registration and all other records concerning persons who are receiving or who at any time have received services for behavioral health disorders, which are maintained by the department of social and health services, the department, the authority, behavioral health administrative services organizations and their staffs, managed care organizations and their staffs, and by treatment facilities. Treatment records include mental health information contained in a medical bill including but not limited to mental health drugs, a mental health diagnosis, provider name, and dates of service stemming from a medical service. Treatment records do not include notes or records maintained for personal use by a person providing treatment services for the department of social and health services, the department, the authority, behavioral health administrative services organizations, managed care organizations, or a treatment facility if the notes or records are not available to others;

(59) "Video," unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, means the delivery of behavioral health services through the use of interactive audio and video technology, permitting real-time communication between a person and a designated crisis responder, for the purpose of evaluation. "Video" does not include the use of audio-only telephone, facsimile, email, or store and forward technology. "Store and forward technology" means use of an asynchronous transmission of a person's medical information from a mental health service provider to the designated crisis responder which results in medical diagnosis, consultation, or treatment;

(60) "Violent act" means behavior that resulted in homicide, attempted suicide, injury, or substantial loss or damage to property.

Sec. 20. RCW 71.05.215 and 2020 c 302 s 30 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) A person found to be gravely disabled or to present a likelihood of serious harm as a result of a behavioral health disorder has a right to refuse antipsychotic medication unless it is determined that the failure to medicate may result in a likelihood of serious harm or substantial deterioration or substantially prolong the length of involuntary commitment and there is no less intrusive course of treatment than medication in the best interest of that person.

(2) The authority shall adopt rules to carry out the purposes of this chapter. These rules shall include:

(a) An attempt to obtain the informed consent of the person prior to administration of antipsychotic medication.

(b) For short-term treatment up to thirty days, the right to refuse antipsychotic medications unless there is an additional concurring medical opinion approving medication by a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or physician or physician assistant in consultation with a mental health professional with prescriptive authority.

(c) For continued treatment beyond thirty days through the hearing on any petition filed under RCW 71.05.217, the right to periodic review of the decision to medicate by the medical director or designee.

(d) Administration of antipsychotic medication in an emergency and review of this decision within twenty-four hours. An emergency exists if the person presents an imminent likelihood of serious harm, and medically acceptable alternatives to administration of antipsychotic medications are not available or are unlikely to be successful; and in the opinion of the physician, physician assistant, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, the person's condition constitutes an emergency requiring the treatment be instituted prior to obtaining a second medical opinion.

(e) Documentation in the medical record of the attempt by the physician, physician assistant, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner to obtain informed consent and the reasons why antipsychotic medication is being administered over the person's objection or lack of consent.

Sec. 21. RCW 71.05.217 and 2020 c 302 s 32 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Insofar as danger to the individual or others is not created, each person involuntarily detained, treated in a less restrictive alternative course of treatment, or committed for treatment and evaluation pursuant to this chapter shall have, in addition to other rights not specifically withheld by law, the following rights, a list of which shall be prominently posted in all facilities, institutions, and hospitals providing such services:

(a) To wear his or her own clothes and to keep and use his or her own personal possessions, except when deprivation of same is essential to protect the safety of the resident or other persons;

(b) To keep and be allowed to spend a reasonable sum of his or her own money for canteen expenses and small purchases;

(c) To have access to individual storage space for his or her private use;

(d) To have visitors at reasonable times;

(e) To have reasonable access to a telephone, both to make and receive confidential calls;

(f) To have ready access to letter writing materials, including stamps, and to send and receive uncensored correspondence through the mails;

(g) To have the right to individualized care and adequate treatment;

(h) To discuss treatment plans and decisions with professional persons;

(i) To not be denied access to treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the tenets and practices of a church or religious denomination in addition to the treatment otherwise proposed;

(j) Not to consent to the administration of antipsychotic medications beyond the hearing conducted pursuant to RCW 71.05.320(4) or the performance of electroconvulsant therapy or surgery, except emergency lifesaving surgery, unless ordered by a court of competent jurisdiction pursuant to the following standards and procedures:

(i) The administration of antipsychotic medication or electroconvulsant therapy shall not be ordered unless the petitioning party proves by clear, cogent, and convincing evidence that there exists a compelling state interest that justifies overriding the patient's lack of consent to the administration of antipsychotic medications or electroconvulsant therapy, that the proposed treatment is necessary and effective, and that medically acceptable alternative forms of treatment are not available, have not been successful, or are not likely to be effective.

(ii) The court shall make specific findings of fact concerning: (A) The existence of one or more compelling state interests; (B) the necessity and effectiveness of the treatment; and (C) the person's desires regarding the proposed treatment. If the patient is unable to make a rational and informed decision about consenting to or refusing the proposed treatment, the court shall make a substituted judgment for the patient as if he or she were competent to make such a determination.

(iii) The person shall be present at any hearing on a request to administer antipsychotic medication or electroconvulsant therapy filed pursuant to this subsection. The person has the right: (A) To be represented by an attorney; (B) to present evidence; (C) to cross-examine witnesses; (D) to have the rules of evidence enforced; (E) to remain silent; (F) to view and copy all petitions and reports in the court file; and (G) to be given reasonable notice and an opportunity to prepare for the hearing. The court may appoint a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, psychologist within their scope of practice, physician assistant, or physician to examine and testify on behalf of such person. The court shall appoint a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, psychologist within their scope of practice, physician assistant, or physician designated by such person or the person's counsel to testify on behalf of the person in cases where an order for electroconvulsant therapy is sought.

(iv) An order for the administration of antipsychotic medications entered following a hearing conducted pursuant to this section shall be effective for the period of the current involuntary treatment order, and any interim period during which the person is awaiting trial or hearing on a new petition for involuntary treatment or involuntary medication.

(v) Any person detained pursuant to RCW 71.05.320(4), who subsequently refuses antipsychotic medication, shall be entitled to the procedures set forth in this subsection.

(vi) Antipsychotic medication may be administered to a nonconsenting person detained or committed pursuant to this chapter without a court order pursuant to RCW 71.05.215(2) or under the following circumstances:

(A) A person presents an imminent likelihood of serious harm;

(B) Medically acceptable alternatives to administration of antipsychotic medications are not available, have not been successful, or are not likely to be effective; and

(C) In the opinion of the physician, physician assistant, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner with responsibility for treatment of the person, or his or her designee, the person's condition constitutes an emergency requiring the treatment be instituted before a judicial hearing as authorized pursuant to this section can be held.

If antipsychotic medications are administered over a person's lack of consent pursuant to this subsection, a petition for an order authorizing the administration of antipsychotic medications shall be filed on the next judicial day. The hearing shall be held within two judicial days. If deemed necessary by the physician, physician assistant, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner with responsibility for the treatment of the person, administration of antipsychotic medications may continue until the hearing is held;

(k) To dispose of property and sign contracts unless such person has been adjudicated an incompetent in a court proceeding directed to that particular issue;

(l) Not to have psychosurgery performed on him or her under any circumstances.

(2) Every person involuntarily detained or committed under the provisions of this chapter is entitled to all the rights set forth in this chapter and retains all rights not denied him or her under this chapter except as limited by chapter 9.41 RCW.

(3) No person may be presumed incompetent as a consequence of receiving evaluation or treatment for a behavioral health disorder. Competency may not be determined or withdrawn except under the provisions of chapter 10.77 ((or 11.88)) RCW.

(4) Subject to RCW 71.05.745 and related regulations, persons receiving evaluation or treatment under this chapter must be given a reasonable choice of an available physician, physician assistant, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or other professional person qualified to provide such services.

(5) Whenever any person is detained under this chapter, the person must be advised that unless the person is released or voluntarily admits himself or herself for treatment within one hundred twenty hours of the initial detention, a judicial hearing must be held in a superior court within one hundred twenty hours to determine whether there is probable cause to detain the person for up to an additional fourteen days based on an allegation that because of a behavioral health disorder the person presents a likelihood of serious harm or is gravely disabled, and that at the probable cause hearing the person has the following rights:

(a) To communicate immediately with an attorney; to have an attorney appointed if the person is indigent; and to be told the name and address of the attorney that has been designated;

(b) To remain silent, and to know that any statement the person makes may be used against him or her;

(c) To present evidence on the person's behalf;

(d) To cross-examine witnesses who testify against him or her;

(e) To be proceeded against by the rules of evidence;

(f) To have the court appoint a reasonably available independent professional person to examine the person and testify in the hearing, at public expense unless the person is able to bear the cost;

(g) To view and copy all petitions and reports in the court file; and

(h) To refuse psychiatric medications, including antipsychotic medication beginning twenty-four hours prior to the probable cause hearing.

(6) The judicial hearing described in subsection (5) of this section must be held according to the provisions of subsection (5) of this section and rules promulgated by the supreme court.

(7)(a) Privileges between patients and physicians, physician assistants, psychologists, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioners are deemed waived in proceedings under this chapter relating to the administration of antipsychotic medications. As to other proceedings under this chapter, the privileges are waived when a court of competent jurisdiction in its discretion determines that such waiver is necessary to protect either the detained person or the public.

(b) The waiver of a privilege under this section is limited to records or testimony relevant to evaluation of the detained person for purposes of a proceeding under this chapter. Upon motion by the detained person or on its own motion, the court shall examine a record or testimony sought by a petitioner to determine whether it is within the scope of the waiver.

(c) The record maker may not be required to testify in order to introduce medical or psychological records of the detained person so long as the requirements of RCW 5.45.020 are met except that portions of the record which contain opinions as to the detained person's mental state must be deleted from such records unless the person making such conclusions is available for cross-examination.

(8) Nothing contained in this chapter prohibits the patient from petitioning by writ of habeas corpus for release.

(9) Nothing in this section permits any person to knowingly violate a no-contact order or a condition of an active judgment and sentence or an active condition of supervision by the department of corrections.

(10) The rights set forth under this section apply equally to ninety-day or one hundred eighty-day hearings under RCW 71.05.310.

Sec. 22. RCW 71.05.585 and 2022 c 210 s 20 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Less restrictive alternative treatment, at a minimum, includes the following services:

(a) Assignment of a care coordinator;

(b) An intake evaluation with the provider of the less restrictive alternative treatment;

(c) A psychiatric evaluation, a substance use disorder evaluation, or both;

(d) A schedule of regular contacts with the provider of the treatment services for the duration of the order;

(e) A transition plan addressing access to continued services at the expiration of the order;

(f) An individual crisis plan;

(g) Consultation about the formation of a mental health advance directive under chapter 71.32 RCW; and

(h) Notification to the care coordinator assigned in (a) of this subsection if reasonable efforts to engage the client fail to produce substantial compliance with court-ordered treatment conditions.

(2) Less restrictive alternative treatment may additionally include requirements to participate in the following services:

(a) Medication management;

(b) Psychotherapy;

(c) Nursing;

(d) Substance use disorder counseling;

(e) Residential treatment;

(f) Partial hospitalization;

(g) Intensive outpatient treatment;

(h) Support for housing, benefits, education, and employment; and

(i) Periodic court review.

(3) If the person was provided with involuntary medication under RCW 71.05.215 or pursuant to a judicial order during the involuntary commitment period, the less restrictive alternative treatment order may authorize the less restrictive alternative treatment provider or its designee to administer involuntary antipsychotic medication to the person if the provider has attempted and failed to obtain the informed consent of the person and there is a concurring medical opinion approving the medication by a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or physician or physician assistant in consultation with an independent mental health professional with prescribing authority.

(4) Less restrictive alternative treatment must be administered by a provider that is certified or licensed to provide or coordinate the full scope of services required under the less restrictive alternative order and that has agreed to assume this responsibility.

(5) The care coordinator assigned to a person ordered to less restrictive alternative treatment must submit an individualized plan for the person's treatment services to the court that entered the order. An initial plan must be submitted as soon as possible following the intake evaluation and a revised plan must be submitted upon any subsequent modification in which a type of service is removed from or added to the treatment plan.

(6) A care coordinator may disclose information and records related to mental health services pursuant to RCW 70.02.230(2)(k) for purposes of implementing less restrictive alternative treatment.

(7) For the purpose of this section, "care coordinator" means a clinical practitioner who coordinates the activities of less restrictive alternative treatment. The care coordinator coordinates activities with the designated crisis responders that are necessary for enforcement and continuation of less restrictive alternative orders and is responsible for coordinating service activities with other agencies and establishing and maintaining a therapeutic relationship with the individual on a continuing basis.

Sec. 23. RCW 71.32.110 and 2021 c 287 s 11 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) For the purposes of this chapter, a principal, agent, professional person, or health care provider may seek a determination whether the principal is incapacitated or has regained capacity.

(2)(a) For the purposes of this chapter, no adult may be declared an incapacitated person except by:

(i) A court, if the request is made by the principal or the principal's agent;

(ii) One mental health professional or substance use disorder professional and one health care provider; or

(iii) Two health care providers.

(b) One of the persons making the determination under (a)(ii) or (iii) of this subsection must be a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychologist, or a psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner.

(3) When a professional person or health care provider requests a capacity determination, he or she shall promptly inform the principal that:

(a) A request for capacity determination has been made; and

(b) The principal may request that the determination be made by a court.

(4) At least one mental health professional, substance use disorder professional, or health care provider must personally examine the principal prior to making a capacity determination.

(5)(a) When a court makes a determination whether a principal has capacity, the court shall, at a minimum, be informed by the testimony of one mental health professional or substance use disorder professional familiar with the principal and shall, except for good cause, give the principal an opportunity to appear in court prior to the court making its determination.

(b) To the extent that local court rules permit, any party or witness may testify telephonically.

(6) When a court has made a determination regarding a principal's capacity and there is a subsequent change in the principal's condition, subsequent determinations whether the principal is incapacitated may be made in accordance with any of the provisions of subsection (2) of this section.

Sec. 24. RCW 71.32.140 and 2021 c 287 s 13 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) A principal who:

(a) Chose not to be able to revoke his or her directive during any period of incapacity;

(b) Consented to voluntary admission to inpatient behavioral health treatment, or authorized an agent to consent on the principal's behalf; and

(c) At the time of admission to inpatient treatment, refuses to be admitted, may only be admitted into inpatient behavioral health treatment under subsection (2) of this section.

(2) A principal may only be admitted to inpatient behavioral health treatment under his or her directive if, prior to admission, a member of the treating facility's professional staff who is a physician, physician assistant, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner:

(a) Evaluates the principal's mental condition, including a review of reasonably available psychiatric and psychological history, diagnosis, and treatment needs, and determines, in conjunction with another health care provider, mental health professional, or substance use disorder professional, that the principal is incapacitated;

(b) Obtains the informed consent of the agent, if any, designated in the directive;

(c) Makes a written determination that the principal needs an inpatient evaluation or is in need of inpatient treatment and that the evaluation or treatment cannot be accomplished in a less restrictive setting; and

(d) Documents in the principal's medical record a summary of the physician's, physician assistant's, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner's findings and recommendations for treatment or evaluation.

(3) In the event the admitting physician is not a psychiatrist, the admitting physician assistant is not ((supervised by))working with a psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, or the advanced registered nurse practitioner is not a psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, the principal shall receive a complete behavioral health assessment by a mental health professional or substance use disorder professional within 24 hours of admission to determine the continued need for inpatient evaluation or treatment.

(4)(a) If it is determined that the principal has capacity, then the principal may only be admitted to, or remain in, inpatient treatment if he or she consents at the time, is admitted for family-initiated treatment under chapter 71.34 RCW, or is detained under the involuntary treatment provisions of chapter 71.05 or 71.34 RCW.

(b) If a principal who is determined by two health care providers or one mental health professional or substance use disorder professional and one health care provider to be incapacitated continues to refuse inpatient treatment, the principal may immediately seek injunctive relief for release from the facility.

(5) If, at the end of the period of time that the principal or the principal's agent, if any, has consented to voluntary inpatient treatment, but no more than 14 days after admission, the principal has not regained capacity or has regained capacity but refuses to consent to remain for additional treatment, the principal must be released during reasonable daylight hours, unless detained under chapter 71.05 or 71.34 RCW.

(6)(a) Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, any principal who is voluntarily admitted to inpatient behavioral health treatment under this chapter shall have all the rights provided to individuals who are voluntarily admitted to inpatient treatment under chapter 71.05, 71.34, or 72.23 RCW.

(b) Notwithstanding RCW 71.05.050 regarding consent to inpatient treatment for a specified length of time, the choices an incapacitated principal expressed in his or her directive shall control, provided, however, that a principal who takes action demonstrating a desire to be discharged, in addition to making statements requesting to be discharged, shall be discharged, and no principal shall be restrained in any way in order to prevent his or her discharge. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prevent detention and evaluation for civil commitment under chapter 71.05 RCW.

(7) Consent to inpatient admission in a directive is effective only while the professional person, health care provider, and health care facility are in substantial compliance with the material provisions of the directive related to inpatient treatment.

Sec. 25. RCW 71.32.250 and 2021 c 287 s 18 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) If a principal who is a resident of a long-term care facility is admitted to inpatient behavioral health treatment pursuant to his or her directive, the principal shall be allowed to be readmitted to the same long-term care facility as if his or her inpatient admission had been for a physical condition on the same basis that the principal would be readmitted under state or federal statute or rule when:

(a) The treating facility's professional staff determine that inpatient behavioral health treatment is no longer medically necessary for the resident. The determination shall be made in writing by a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, or a psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or (i) one physician and a mental health professional or substance use disorder professional; (ii) one physician assistant and a mental health professional or substance use disorder professional; or (iii) one psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner and a mental health professional or substance use disorder professional; or

(b) The person's consent to admission in his or her directive has expired.

(2)(a) If the long-term care facility does not have a bed available at the time of discharge, the treating facility may discharge the resident, in consultation with the resident and agent if any, and in accordance with a medically appropriate discharge plan, to another long-term care facility.

(b) This section shall apply to inpatient behavioral health treatment admission of long-term care facility residents, regardless of whether the admission is directly from a facility, hospital emergency room, or other location.

(c) This section does not restrict the right of the resident to an earlier release from the inpatient treatment facility. This section does not restrict the right of a long-term care facility to initiate transfer or discharge of a resident who is readmitted pursuant to this section, provided that the facility has complied with the laws governing the transfer or discharge of a resident.

(3) The joint legislative audit and review committee shall conduct an evaluation of the operation and impact of this section. The committee shall report its findings to the appropriate committees of the legislature by December 1, 2004.

Sec. 26. RCW 71.34.020 and 2023 c 433 s 12 are each amended to read as follows:

Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter.

(1) "Admission" or "admit" means a decision by a physician, physician assistant, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner that a minor should be examined or treated as a patient in a hospital.

(2) "Adolescent" means a minor thirteen years of age or older.

(3) "Alcoholism" means a disease, characterized by a dependency on alcoholic beverages, loss of control over the amount and circumstances of use, symptoms of tolerance, physiological or psychological withdrawal, or both, if use is reduced or discontinued, and impairment of health or disruption of social or economic functioning.

(4) "Antipsychotic medications" means that class of drugs primarily used to treat serious manifestations of mental illness associated with thought disorders, which includes, but is not limited to, atypical antipsychotic medications.

(5) "Approved substance use disorder treatment program" means a program for minors with substance use disorders provided by a treatment program licensed or certified by the department of health as meeting standards adopted under chapter 71.24 RCW.

(6) "Attending staff" means any person on the staff of a public or private agency having responsibility for the care and treatment of a minor patient.

(7) "Authority" means the Washington state health care authority.

(8) "Behavioral health administrative services organization" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 71.24.025.

(9) "Behavioral health disorder" means either a mental disorder as defined in this section, a substance use disorder as defined in this section, or a co-occurring mental disorder and substance use disorder.

(10) "Child psychiatrist" means a person having a license as a physician and surgeon in this state, who has had graduate training in child psychiatry in a program approved by the American Medical Association or the American Osteopathic Association, and who is board eligible or board certified in child psychiatry.

(11) "Children's mental health specialist" means:

(a) A mental health professional who has completed a minimum of one hundred actual hours, not quarter or semester hours, of specialized training devoted to the study of child development and the treatment of children; and

(b) A mental health professional who has the equivalent of one year of full-time experience in the treatment of children under the supervision of a children's mental health specialist.

(12) "Commitment" means a determination by a judge or court commissioner, made after a commitment hearing, that the minor is in need of inpatient diagnosis, evaluation, or treatment or that the minor is in need of less restrictive alternative treatment.

(13) "Conditional release" means a revocable modification of a commitment, which may be revoked upon violation of any of its terms.

(14) "Co-occurring disorder specialist" means an individual possessing an enhancement granted by the department of health under chapter 18.205 RCW that certifies the individual to provide substance use disorder counseling subject to the practice limitations under RCW 18.205.105.

(15) "Crisis stabilization unit" means a short-term facility or a portion of a facility licensed or certified by the department of health under RCW 71.24.035, such as a residential treatment facility or a hospital, which has been designed to assess, diagnose, and treat individuals experiencing an acute crisis without the use of long-term hospitalization, or to determine the need for involuntary commitment of an individual.

(16) "Custody" means involuntary detention under the provisions of this chapter or chapter 10.77 RCW, uninterrupted by any period of unconditional release from commitment from a facility providing involuntary care and treatment.

(17) "Department" means the department of social and health services.

(18) "Designated crisis responder" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 71.05.020.

(19) "Detention" or "detain" means the lawful confinement of a person, under the provisions of this chapter.

(20) "Developmental disabilities professional" means a person who has specialized training and three years of experience in directly treating or working with persons with developmental disabilities and is a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychologist, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or social worker, and such other developmental disabilities professionals as may be defined by rules adopted by the secretary of the department.

(21) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as defined in RCW 71A.10.020.

(22) "Director" means the director of the authority.

(23) "Discharge" means the termination of hospital medical authority. The commitment may remain in place, be terminated, or be amended by court order.

(24) "Evaluation and treatment facility" means a public or private facility or unit that is licensed or certified by the department of health to provide emergency, inpatient, residential, or outpatient mental health evaluation and treatment services for minors. A physically separate and separately operated portion of a state hospital may be designated as an evaluation and treatment facility for minors. A facility which is part of or operated by the state or federal agency does not require licensure or certification. No correctional institution or facility, juvenile court detention facility, or jail may be an evaluation and treatment facility within the meaning of this chapter.

(25) "Evaluation and treatment program" means the total system of services and facilities coordinated and approved by a county or combination of counties for the evaluation and treatment of minors under this chapter.

(26) "Gravely disabled minor" means a minor who, as a result of a behavioral health disorder, (a) is in danger of serious physical harm resulting from a failure to provide for his or her essential human needs of health or safety, or (b) manifests severe deterioration in routine functioning evidenced by repeated and escalating loss of cognitive or volitional control over his or her actions and is not receiving such care as is essential for his or her health or safety.

(27) "Habilitative services" means those services provided by program personnel to assist minors in acquiring and maintaining life skills and in raising their levels of physical, behavioral, social, and vocational functioning. Habilitative services include education, training for employment, and therapy.

(28) "Hearing" means any proceeding conducted in open court that conforms to the requirements of RCW 71.34.910.

(29) "History of one or more violent acts" refers to the period of time five years prior to the filing of a petition under this chapter, excluding any time spent, but not any violent acts committed, in a mental health facility, a long-term substance use disorder treatment facility, or in confinement as a result of a criminal conviction.

(30) "Individualized service plan" means a plan prepared by a developmental disabilities professional with other professionals as a team, for a person with developmental disabilities, which states:

(a) The nature of the person's specific problems, prior charged criminal behavior, and habilitation needs;

(b) The conditions and strategies necessary to achieve the purposes of habilitation;

(c) The intermediate and long-range goals of the habilitation program, with a projected timetable for the attainment;

(d) The rationale for using this plan of habilitation to achieve those intermediate and long-range goals;

(e) The staff responsible for carrying out the plan;

(f) Where relevant in light of past criminal behavior and due consideration for public safety, the criteria for proposed movement to less-restrictive settings, criteria for proposed eventual discharge or release, and a projected possible date for discharge or release; and

(g) The type of residence immediately anticipated for the person and possible future types of residences.

(31)(a) "Inpatient treatment" means twenty-four-hour-per-day mental health care provided within a general hospital, psychiatric hospital, residential treatment facility licensed or certified by the department of health as an evaluation and treatment facility for minors, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility for minors, or approved substance use disorder treatment program for minors.

(b) For purposes of family-initiated treatment under RCW 71.34.600 through 71.34.670, "inpatient treatment" has the meaning included in (a) of this subsection and any other residential treatment facility licensed under chapter 71.12 RCW.

(32) "Intoxicated minor" means a minor whose mental or physical functioning is substantially impaired as a result of the use of alcohol or other psychoactive chemicals.

(33) "Judicial commitment" means a commitment by a court pursuant to the provisions of this chapter.

(34) "Kinship caregiver" has the same meaning as in RCW 74.13.031(((19)(a)))(22)(a).

(35) "Legal counsel" means attorneys and staff employed by county prosecutor offices or the state attorney general acting in their capacity as legal representatives of public behavioral health service providers under RCW 71.05.130.

(36) "Less restrictive alternative" or "less restrictive setting" means outpatient treatment provided to a minor as a program of individualized treatment in a less restrictive setting than inpatient treatment that includes the services described in RCW 71.34.755, including residential treatment.

(37) "Licensed physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine and surgery in the state of Washington.

(38) "Likelihood of serious harm" means:

(a) A substantial risk that: (i) Physical harm will be inflicted by a minor upon his or her own person, as evidenced by threats or attempts to commit suicide or inflict physical harm on oneself; (ii) physical harm will be inflicted by a minor upon another individual, as evidenced by behavior which has caused such harm or which places another person or persons in reasonable fear of sustaining such harm; or (iii) physical harm will be inflicted by a minor upon the property of others, as evidenced by behavior which has caused substantial loss or damage to the property of others; or

(b) The minor has threatened the physical safety of another and has a history of one or more violent acts.

(39) "Managed care organization" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 71.24.025.

(40) "Medical clearance" means a physician or other health care provider has determined that a person is medically stable and ready for referral to the designated crisis responder.

(41) "Medical necessity" for inpatient care means a requested service which is reasonably calculated to: (a) Diagnose, correct, cure, or alleviate a mental disorder or substance use disorder; or (b) prevent the progression of a mental disorder or substance use disorder that endangers life or causes suffering and pain, or results in illness or infirmity or threatens to cause or aggravate a disability, or causes physical deformity or malfunction, and there is no adequate less restrictive alternative available.

(42) "Mental disorder" means any organic, mental, or emotional impairment that has substantial adverse effects on an individual's cognitive or volitional functions. The presence of alcohol abuse, drug abuse, juvenile criminal history, antisocial behavior, or intellectual disabilities alone is insufficient to justify a finding of "mental disorder" within the meaning of this section.

(43) "Mental health professional" means a psychiatrist, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychologist, psychiatric nurse, social worker, and such other mental health professionals as defined by rules adopted by the secretary of the department of health under this chapter.

(44) "Minor" means any person under the age of eighteen years.

(45) "Outpatient treatment" means any of the nonresidential services mandated under chapter 71.24 RCW and provided by licensed or certified behavioral health agencies as identified by RCW 71.24.025.

(46)(a) "Parent" has the same meaning as defined in RCW 26.26A.010, including either parent if custody is shared under a joint custody agreement, or a person or agency judicially appointed as legal guardian or custodian of the child.

(b) For purposes of family-initiated treatment under RCW 71.34.600 through 71.34.670, "parent" also includes a person to whom a parent defined in (a) of this subsection has given a signed authorization to make health care decisions for the adolescent, a stepparent who is involved in caring for the adolescent, a kinship caregiver who is involved in caring for the adolescent, or another relative who is responsible for the health care of the adolescent, who may be required to provide a declaration under penalty of perjury stating that he or she is a relative responsible for the health care of the adolescent pursuant to chapter 5.50 RCW. If a dispute arises between individuals authorized to act as a parent for the purpose of RCW 71.34.600 through 71.34.670, the disagreement must be resolved according to the priority established under RCW 7.70.065(2)(a).

(47) "Peace officer" means a law enforcement official of a public agency or governmental unit, and includes persons specifically given peace officer powers by any state law, local ordinance, or judicial order of appointment.

(48) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed as a physician assistant under chapter 18.71A RCW.

(49) "Private agency" means any person, partnership, corporation, or association that is not a public agency, whether or not financed in whole or in part by public funds, that constitutes an evaluation and treatment facility or private institution, or hospital, or approved substance use disorder treatment program, that is conducted for, or includes a distinct unit, floor, or ward conducted for, the care and treatment of persons with mental illness, substance use disorders, or both mental illness and substance use disorders.

(50) "Professional person in charge" or "professional person" means a physician, other mental health professional, or other person empowered by an evaluation and treatment facility, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility, or approved substance use disorder treatment program with authority to make admission and discharge decisions on behalf of that facility.

(51) "Psychiatric nurse" means a registered nurse who has experience in the direct treatment of persons who have a mental illness or who are emotionally disturbed, such experience gained under the supervision of a mental health professional.

(52) "Psychiatrist" means a person having a license as a physician in this state who has completed residency training in psychiatry in a program approved by the American Medical Association or the American Osteopathic Association, and is board eligible or board certified in psychiatry.

(53) "Psychologist" means a person licensed as a psychologist under chapter 18.83 RCW.

(54) "Public agency" means any evaluation and treatment facility or institution, or hospital, or approved substance use disorder treatment program that is conducted for, or includes a distinct unit, floor, or ward conducted for, the care and treatment of persons with mental illness, substance use disorders, or both mental illness and substance use disorders if the agency is operated directly by federal, state, county, or municipal government, or a combination of such governments.

(55) "Release" means legal termination of the commitment under the provisions of this chapter.

(56) "Resource management services" has the meaning given in chapter 71.24 RCW.

(57) "Responsible other" means the minor, the minor's parent or estate, or any other person legally responsible for support of the minor.

(58) "Secretary" means the secretary of the department or secretary's designee.

(59) "Secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility" means a facility operated by either a public or private agency or by the program of an agency which provides care to voluntary individuals and individuals involuntarily detained and committed under this chapter for whom there is a likelihood of serious harm or who are gravely disabled due to the presence of a substance use disorder. Secure withdrawal management and stabilization facilities must:

(a) Provide the following services:

(i) Assessment and treatment, provided by certified substance use disorder professionals or co-occurring disorder specialists;

(ii) Clinical stabilization services;

(iii) Acute or subacute detoxification services for intoxicated individuals; and

(iv) Discharge assistance provided by certified substance use disorder professionals or co-occurring disorder specialists, including facilitating transitions to appropriate voluntary or involuntary inpatient services or to less restrictive alternatives as appropriate for the individual;

(b) Include security measures sufficient to protect the patients, staff, and community; and

(c) Be licensed or certified as such by the department of health.

(60) "Social worker" means a person with a master's or further advanced degree from a social work educational program accredited and approved as provided in RCW 18.320.010.

(61) "Start of initial detention" means the time of arrival of the minor at the first evaluation and treatment facility, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility, or approved substance use disorder treatment program offering inpatient treatment if the minor is being involuntarily detained at the time. With regard to voluntary patients, "start of initial detention" means the time at which the minor gives notice of intent to leave under the provisions of this chapter.

(62) "Store and forward technology" means use of an asynchronous transmission of a person's medical information from a mental health service provider to the designated crisis responder which results in medical diagnosis, consultation, or treatment.

(63) "Substance use disorder" means a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that an individual continues using the substance despite significant substance-related problems. The diagnosis of a substance use disorder is based on a pathological pattern of behaviors related to the use of the substances.

(64) "Substance use disorder professional" means a person certified as a substance use disorder professional by the department of health under chapter 18.205 RCW.

(65) "Therapeutic court personnel" means the staff of a mental health court or other therapeutic court which has jurisdiction over defendants who are dually diagnosed with mental disorders, including court personnel, probation officers, a court monitor, prosecuting attorney, or defense counsel acting within the scope of therapeutic court duties.

(66) "Treatment records" include registration and all other records concerning persons who are receiving or who at any time have received services for mental illness, which are maintained by the department, the department of health, the authority, behavioral health organizations and their staffs, and by treatment facilities. Treatment records include mental health information contained in a medical bill including but not limited to mental health drugs, a mental health diagnosis, provider name, and dates of service stemming from a medical service. Treatment records do not include notes or records maintained for personal use by a person providing treatment services for the department, the department of health, the authority, behavioral health organizations, or a treatment facility if the notes or records are not available to others.

(67) "Video" means the delivery of behavioral health services through the use of interactive audio and video technology, permitting real-time communication between a person and a designated crisis responder, for the purpose of evaluation. "Video" does not include the use of audio-only telephone, facsimile, email, or store and forward technology.

(68) "Violent act" means behavior that resulted in homicide, attempted suicide, injury, or substantial loss or damage to property.

Sec. 27. RCW 71.34.020 and 2023 c 433 s 13 are each amended to read as follows:

Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter.

(1) "Admission" or "admit" means a decision by a physician, physician assistant, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner that a minor should be examined or treated as a patient in a hospital.

(2) "Adolescent" means a minor thirteen years of age or older.

(3) "Alcoholism" means a disease, characterized by a dependency on alcoholic beverages, loss of control over the amount and circumstances of use, symptoms of tolerance, physiological or psychological withdrawal, or both, if use is reduced or discontinued, and impairment of health or disruption of social or economic functioning.

(4) "Antipsychotic medications" means that class of drugs primarily used to treat serious manifestations of mental illness associated with thought disorders, which includes, but is not limited to, atypical antipsychotic medications.

(5) "Approved substance use disorder treatment program" means a program for minors with substance use disorders provided by a treatment program licensed or certified by the department of health as meeting standards adopted under chapter 71.24 RCW.

(6) "Attending staff" means any person on the staff of a public or private agency having responsibility for the care and treatment of a minor patient.

(7) "Authority" means the Washington state health care authority.

(8) "Behavioral health administrative services organization" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 71.24.025.

(9) "Behavioral health disorder" means either a mental disorder as defined in this section, a substance use disorder as defined in this section, or a co-occurring mental disorder and substance use disorder.

(10) "Child psychiatrist" means a person having a license as a physician and surgeon in this state, who has had graduate training in child psychiatry in a program approved by the American Medical Association or the American Osteopathic Association, and who is board eligible or board certified in child psychiatry.

(11) "Children's mental health specialist" means:

(a) A mental health professional who has completed a minimum of one hundred actual hours, not quarter or semester hours, of specialized training devoted to the study of child development and the treatment of children; and

(b) A mental health professional who has the equivalent of one year of full-time experience in the treatment of children under the supervision of a children's mental health specialist.

(12) "Commitment" means a determination by a judge or court commissioner, made after a commitment hearing, that the minor is in need of inpatient diagnosis, evaluation, or treatment or that the minor is in need of less restrictive alternative treatment.

(13) "Conditional release" means a revocable modification of a commitment, which may be revoked upon violation of any of its terms.

(14) "Co-occurring disorder specialist" means an individual possessing an enhancement granted by the department of health under chapter 18.205 RCW that certifies the individual to provide substance use disorder counseling subject to the practice limitations under RCW 18.205.105.

(15) "Crisis stabilization unit" means a short-term facility or a portion of a facility licensed or certified by the department of health under RCW 71.24.035, such as a residential treatment facility or a hospital, which has been designed to assess, diagnose, and treat individuals experiencing an acute crisis without the use of long-term hospitalization, or to determine the need for involuntary commitment of an individual.

(16) "Custody" means involuntary detention under the provisions of this chapter or chapter 10.77 RCW, uninterrupted by any period of unconditional release from commitment from a facility providing involuntary care and treatment.

(17) "Department" means the department of social and health services.

(18) "Designated crisis responder" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 71.05.020.

(19) "Detention" or "detain" means the lawful confinement of a person, under the provisions of this chapter.

(20) "Developmental disabilities professional" means a person who has specialized training and three years of experience in directly treating or working with persons with developmental disabilities and is a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychologist, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or social worker, and such other developmental disabilities professionals as may be defined by rules adopted by the secretary of the department.

(21) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as defined in RCW 71A.10.020.

(22) "Director" means the director of the authority.

(23) "Discharge" means the termination of hospital medical authority. The commitment may remain in place, be terminated, or be amended by court order.

(24) "Evaluation and treatment facility" means a public or private facility or unit that is licensed or certified by the department of health to provide emergency, inpatient, residential, or outpatient mental health evaluation and treatment services for minors. A physically separate and separately operated portion of a state hospital may be designated as an evaluation and treatment facility for minors. A facility which is part of or operated by the state or federal agency does not require licensure or certification. No correctional institution or facility, juvenile court detention facility, or jail may be an evaluation and treatment facility within the meaning of this chapter.

(25) "Evaluation and treatment program" means the total system of services and facilities coordinated and approved by a county or combination of counties for the evaluation and treatment of minors under this chapter.

(26) "Gravely disabled minor" means a minor who, as a result of a behavioral health disorder, (a) is in danger of serious physical harm resulting from a failure to provide for his or her essential human needs of health or safety, or (b) manifests severe deterioration from safe behavior evidenced by repeated and escalating loss of cognitive or volitional control over his or her actions and is not receiving such care as is essential for his or her health or safety.

(27) "Habilitative services" means those services provided by program personnel to assist minors in acquiring and maintaining life skills and in raising their levels of physical, behavioral, social, and vocational functioning. Habilitative services include education, training for employment, and therapy.

(28) "Hearing" means any proceeding conducted in open court that conforms to the requirements of RCW 71.34.910.

(29) "History of one or more violent acts" refers to the period of time five years prior to the filing of a petition under this chapter, excluding any time spent, but not any violent acts committed, in a mental health facility, a long-term substance use disorder treatment facility, or in confinement as a result of a criminal conviction.

(30) "Individualized service plan" means a plan prepared by a developmental disabilities professional with other professionals as a team, for a person with developmental disabilities, which states:

(a) The nature of the person's specific problems, prior charged criminal behavior, and habilitation needs;

(b) The conditions and strategies necessary to achieve the purposes of habilitation;

(c) The intermediate and long-range goals of the habilitation program, with a projected timetable for the attainment;

(d) The rationale for using this plan of habilitation to achieve those intermediate and long-range goals;

(e) The staff responsible for carrying out the plan;

(f) Where relevant in light of past criminal behavior and due consideration for public safety, the criteria for proposed movement to less-restrictive settings, criteria for proposed eventual discharge or release, and a projected possible date for discharge or release; and

(g) The type of residence immediately anticipated for the person and possible future types of residences.

(31)(a) "Inpatient treatment" means twenty-four-hour-per-day mental health care provided within a general hospital, psychiatric hospital, residential treatment facility licensed or certified by the department of health as an evaluation and treatment facility for minors, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility for minors, or approved substance use disorder treatment program for minors.

(b) For purposes of family-initiated treatment under RCW 71.34.600 through 71.34.670, "inpatient treatment" has the meaning included in (a) of this subsection and any other residential treatment facility licensed under chapter 71.12 RCW.

(32) "Intoxicated minor" means a minor whose mental or physical functioning is substantially impaired as a result of the use of alcohol or other psychoactive chemicals.

(33) "Judicial commitment" means a commitment by a court pursuant to the provisions of this chapter.

(34) "Kinship caregiver" has the same meaning as in RCW 74.13.031(((19)(a)))(22)(a).

(35) "Legal counsel" means attorneys and staff employed by county prosecutor offices or the state attorney general acting in their capacity as legal representatives of public behavioral health service providers under RCW 71.05.130.

(36) "Less restrictive alternative" or "less restrictive setting" means outpatient treatment provided to a minor as a program of individualized treatment in a less restrictive setting than inpatient treatment that includes the services described in RCW 71.34.755, including residential treatment.

(37) "Licensed physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine and surgery in the state of Washington.

(38) "Likelihood of serious harm" means:

(a) A substantial risk that: (i) Physical harm will be inflicted by a minor upon his or her own person, as evidenced by threats or attempts to commit suicide or inflict physical harm on oneself; (ii) physical harm will be inflicted by a minor upon another individual, as evidenced by behavior which has caused harm, substantial pain, or which places another person or persons in reasonable fear of harm to themselves or others; or (iii) physical harm will be inflicted by a minor upon the property of others, as evidenced by behavior which has caused substantial loss or damage to the property of others; or

(b) The minor has threatened the physical safety of another and has a history of one or more violent acts.

(39) "Managed care organization" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 71.24.025.

(40) "Medical clearance" means a physician or other health care provider has determined that a person is medically stable and ready for referral to the designated crisis responder.

(41) "Medical necessity" for inpatient care means a requested service which is reasonably calculated to: (a) Diagnose, correct, cure, or alleviate a mental disorder or substance use disorder; or (b) prevent the progression of a mental disorder or substance use disorder that endangers life or causes suffering and pain, or results in illness or infirmity or threatens to cause or aggravate a disability, or causes physical deformity or malfunction, and there is no adequate less restrictive alternative available.

(42) "Mental disorder" means any organic, mental, or emotional impairment that has substantial adverse effects on an individual's cognitive or volitional functions. The presence of alcohol abuse, drug abuse, juvenile criminal history, antisocial behavior, or intellectual disabilities alone is insufficient to justify a finding of "mental disorder" within the meaning of this section.

(43) "Mental health professional" means a psychiatrist, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychologist, psychiatric nurse, social worker, and such other mental health professionals as defined by rules adopted by the secretary of the department of health under this chapter.

(44) "Minor" means any person under the age of eighteen years.

(45) "Outpatient treatment" means any of the nonresidential services mandated under chapter 71.24 RCW and provided by licensed or certified behavioral health agencies as identified by RCW 71.24.025.

(46)(a) "Parent" has the same meaning as defined in RCW 26.26A.010, including either parent if custody is shared under a joint custody agreement, or a person or agency judicially appointed as legal guardian or custodian of the child.

(b) For purposes of family-initiated treatment under RCW 71.34.600 through 71.34.670, "parent" also includes a person to whom a parent defined in (a) of this subsection has given a signed authorization to make health care decisions for the adolescent, a stepparent who is involved in caring for the adolescent, a kinship caregiver who is involved in caring for the adolescent, or another relative who is responsible for the health care of the adolescent, who may be required to provide a declaration under penalty of perjury stating that he or she is a relative responsible for the health care of the adolescent pursuant to chapter 5.50 RCW. If a dispute arises between individuals authorized to act as a parent for the purpose of RCW 71.34.600 through 71.34.670, the disagreement must be resolved according to the priority established under RCW 7.70.065(2)(a).

(47) "Peace officer" means a law enforcement official of a public agency or governmental unit, and includes persons specifically given peace officer powers by any state law, local ordinance, or judicial order of appointment.

(48) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed as a physician assistant under chapter 18.71A RCW.

(49) "Private agency" means any person, partnership, corporation, or association that is not a public agency, whether or not financed in whole or in part by public funds, that constitutes an evaluation and treatment facility or private institution, or hospital, or approved substance use disorder treatment program, that is conducted for, or includes a distinct unit, floor, or ward conducted for, the care and treatment of persons with mental illness, substance use disorders, or both mental illness and substance use disorders.

(50) "Professional person in charge" or "professional person" means a physician, other mental health professional, or other person empowered by an evaluation and treatment facility, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility, or approved substance use disorder treatment program with authority to make admission and discharge decisions on behalf of that facility.

(51) "Psychiatric nurse" means a registered nurse who has experience in the direct treatment of persons who have a mental illness or who are emotionally disturbed, such experience gained under the supervision of a mental health professional.

(52) "Psychiatrist" means a person having a license as a physician in this state who has completed residency training in psychiatry in a program approved by the American Medical Association or the American Osteopathic Association, and is board eligible or board certified in psychiatry.

(53) "Psychologist" means a person licensed as a psychologist under chapter 18.83 RCW.

(54) "Public agency" means any evaluation and treatment facility or institution, or hospital, or approved substance use disorder treatment program that is conducted for, or includes a distinct unit, floor, or ward conducted for, the care and treatment of persons with mental illness, substance use disorders, or both mental illness and substance use disorders if the agency is operated directly by federal, state, county, or municipal government, or a combination of such governments.

(55) "Release" means legal termination of the commitment under the provisions of this chapter.

(56) "Resource management services" has the meaning given in chapter 71.24 RCW.

(57) "Responsible other" means the minor, the minor's parent or estate, or any other person legally responsible for support of the minor.

(58) "Secretary" means the secretary of the department or secretary's designee.

(59) "Secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility" means a facility operated by either a public or private agency or by the program of an agency which provides care to voluntary individuals and individuals involuntarily detained and committed under this chapter for whom there is a likelihood of serious harm or who are gravely disabled due to the presence of a substance use disorder. Secure withdrawal management and stabilization facilities must:

(a) Provide the following services:

(i) Assessment and treatment, provided by certified substance use disorder professionals or co-occurring disorder specialists;

(ii) Clinical stabilization services;

(iii) Acute or subacute detoxification services for intoxicated individuals; and

(iv) Discharge assistance provided by certified substance use disorder professionals or co-occurring disorder specialists, including facilitating transitions to appropriate voluntary or involuntary inpatient services or to less restrictive alternatives as appropriate for the individual;

(b) Include security measures sufficient to protect the patients, staff, and community; and

(c) Be licensed or certified as such by the department of health.

(60) "Severe deterioration from safe behavior" means that a person will, if not treated, suffer or continue to suffer severe and abnormal mental, emotional, or physical distress, and this distress is associated with significant impairment of judgment, reason, or behavior.

(61) "Social worker" means a person with a master's or further advanced degree from a social work educational program accredited and approved as provided in RCW 18.320.010.

(62) "Start of initial detention" means the time of arrival of the minor at the first evaluation and treatment facility, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility, or approved substance use disorder treatment program offering inpatient treatment if the minor is being involuntarily detained at the time. With regard to voluntary patients, "start of initial detention" means the time at which the minor gives notice of intent to leave under the provisions of this chapter.

(63) "Store and forward technology" means use of an asynchronous transmission of a person's medical information from a mental health service provider to the designated crisis responder which results in medical diagnosis, consultation, or treatment.

(64) "Substance use disorder" means a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that an individual continues using the substance despite significant substance-related problems. The diagnosis of a substance use disorder is based on a pathological pattern of behaviors related to the use of the substances.

(65) "Substance use disorder professional" means a person certified as a substance use disorder professional by the department of health under chapter 18.205 RCW.

(66) "Therapeutic court personnel" means the staff of a mental health court or other therapeutic court which has jurisdiction over defendants who are dually diagnosed with mental disorders, including court personnel, probation officers, a court monitor, prosecuting attorney, or defense counsel acting within the scope of therapeutic court duties.

(67) "Treatment records" include registration and all other records concerning persons who are receiving or who at any time have received services for mental illness, which are maintained by the department, the department of health, the authority, behavioral health organizations and their staffs, and by treatment facilities. Treatment records include mental health information contained in a medical bill including but not limited to mental health drugs, a mental health diagnosis, provider name, and dates of service stemming from a medical service. Treatment records do not include notes or records maintained for personal use by a person providing treatment services for the department, the department of health, the authority, behavioral health organizations, or a treatment facility if the notes or records are not available to others.

(68) "Video" means the delivery of behavioral health services through the use of interactive audio and video technology, permitting real-time communication between a person and a designated crisis responder, for the purpose of evaluation. "Video" does not include the use of audio-only telephone, facsimile, email, or store and forward technology.

(69) "Violent act" means behavior that resulted in homicide, attempted suicide, injury, or substantial loss or damage to property.

Sec. 28. RCW 71.34.750 and 2020 c 302 s 94 and 2020 c 185 s 6 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

(1) At any time during the minor's period of fourteen-day commitment, the professional person in charge may petition the court for an order requiring the minor to undergo an additional one hundred eighty-day period of treatment. The evidence in support of the petition shall be presented by the county prosecutor unless the petition is filed by the professional person in charge of a state-operated facility in which case the evidence shall be presented by the attorney general.

(2) The petition for one hundred eighty-day commitment shall contain the following:

(a) The name and address of the petitioner or petitioners;

(b) The name of the minor alleged to meet the criteria for one hundred eighty-day commitment;

(c) A statement that the petitioner is the professional person in charge of the evaluation and treatment facility, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility, or approved substance use disorder treatment program responsible for the treatment of the minor;

(d) The date of the fourteen-day commitment order; and

(e) A summary of the facts supporting the petition.

(3) The petition shall be supported by accompanying affidavits signed by: (a) Two examining physicians, one of whom shall be a child psychiatrist, or two psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioners, one of whom shall be a child and adolescent or family psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner. If the petition is for substance use disorder treatment, the petition may be signed by a substance use disorder professional instead of a mental health professional and by an advanced registered nurse practitioner instead of a psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or two physician assistants, one of whom must be supervised by or collaborating with a child psychiatrist; (b) one children's mental health specialist and either an examining physician, physician assistant, or a psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner; or (c) two among an examining physician, physician assistant, and a psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, one of which needs to be a child psychiatrist, a physician assistant supervised by or collaborating with a child psychiatrist, or a child and adolescent psychiatric nurse practitioner. The affidavits shall describe in detail the behavior of the detained minor which supports the petition and shall state whether a less restrictive alternative to inpatient treatment is in the best interests of the minor.

(4) The petition for one hundred eighty-day commitment shall be filed with the clerk of the court at least three days before the expiration of the fourteen-day commitment period. The petitioner or the petitioner's designee shall within twenty-four hours of filing serve a copy of the petition on the minor and notify the minor's attorney and the minor's parent. A copy of the petition shall be provided to such persons at least twenty-four hours prior to the hearing.

(5) At the time of filing, the court shall set a date within seven days for the hearing on the petition. If the hearing is not commenced within thirty days after the filing of the petition, including extensions of time requested by the detained person or his or her attorney or the court in the administration of justice under RCW 71.34.735, the minor must be released. The minor or the parents shall be afforded the same rights as in a fourteen-day commitment hearing. Treatment of the minor shall continue pending the proceeding.

(6) For one hundred eighty-day commitment:

(a) The court must find by clear, cogent, and convincing evidence that the minor:

(i) Is suffering from a mental disorder or substance use disorder;

(ii) Presents a likelihood of serious harm or is gravely disabled; and

(iii) Is in need of further treatment that only can be provided in a one hundred eighty-day commitment.

(b) If commitment is for a substance use disorder, the court must find that there is an available approved substance use disorder treatment program that has adequate space for the minor.

(7) In determining whether an inpatient or less restrictive alternative commitment is appropriate, great weight must be given to evidence of a prior history or pattern of decompensation and discontinuation of treatment resulting in: (a) Repeated hospitalizations; or (b) repeated peace officer interventions resulting in juvenile charges. Such evidence may be used to provide a factual basis for concluding that the minor would not receive, if released, such care as is essential for his or her health or safety.

(8)(a) If the court finds that the criteria for commitment are met and that less restrictive treatment in a community setting is not appropriate or available, the court shall order the minor committed to the custody of the director for further inpatient mental health treatment, to an approved substance use disorder treatment program for further substance use disorder treatment, or to a private treatment and evaluation facility for inpatient mental health or substance use disorder treatment if the minor's parents have assumed responsibility for payment for the treatment. If the court finds that a less restrictive alternative is in the best interest of the minor, the court shall order less restrictive alternative treatment upon such conditions as necessary.

(b) If the court determines that the minor does not meet the criteria for one hundred eighty-day commitment, the minor shall be released.

(9) Successive one hundred eighty-day commitments are permissible on the same grounds and under the same procedures as the original one hundred eighty-day commitment. Such petitions shall be filed at least three days prior to the expiration of the previous one hundred eighty-day commitment order.

Sec. 29. RCW 71.34.750 and 2020 c 302 s 95 and 2020 c 185 s 7 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

(1) At any time during the minor's period of fourteen-day commitment, the professional person in charge may petition the court for an order requiring the minor to undergo an additional one hundred eighty-day period of treatment. The evidence in support of the petition shall be presented by the county prosecutor unless the petition is filed by the professional person in charge of a state-operated facility in which case the evidence shall be presented by the attorney general.

(2) The petition for one hundred eighty-day commitment shall contain the following:

(a) The name and address of the petitioner or petitioners;

(b) The name of the minor alleged to meet the criteria for one hundred eighty-day commitment;

(c) A statement that the petitioner is the professional person in charge of the evaluation and treatment facility, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility, or approved substance use disorder treatment program responsible for the treatment of the minor;

(d) The date of the fourteen-day commitment order; and

(e) A summary of the facts supporting the petition.

(3) The petition shall be supported by accompanying affidavits signed by: (a) Two examining physicians, one of whom shall be a child psychiatrist, or two psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioners, one of whom shall be a child and adolescent or family psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner. If the petition is for substance use disorder treatment, the petition may be signed by a substance use disorder professional instead of a mental health professional and by an advanced registered nurse practitioner instead of a psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or two physician assistants, one of whom must be supervised by or collaborating with a child psychiatrist; (b) one children's mental health specialist and either an examining physician, physician assistant, or a psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner; or (c) two among an examining physician, physician assistant, and a psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, one of which needs to be a child psychiatrist, a physician assistant supervised by or collaborating with a child psychiatrist, or a child and adolescent psychiatric nurse practitioner. The affidavits shall describe in detail the behavior of the detained minor which supports the petition and shall state whether a less restrictive alternative to inpatient treatment is in the best interests of the minor.

(4) The petition for one hundred eighty-day commitment shall be filed with the clerk of the court at least three days before the expiration of the fourteen-day commitment period. The petitioner or the petitioner's designee shall within twenty-four hours of filing serve a copy of the petition on the minor and notify the minor's attorney and the minor's parent. A copy of the petition shall be provided to such persons at least twenty-four hours prior to the hearing.

(5) At the time of filing, the court shall set a date within seven days for the hearing on the petition. If the hearing is not commenced within thirty days after the filing of the petition, including extensions of time requested by the detained person or his or her attorney or the court in the administration of justice under RCW 71.34.735, the minor must be released. The minor or the parents shall be afforded the same rights as in a fourteen-day commitment hearing. Treatment of the minor shall continue pending the proceeding.

(6) For one hundred eighty-day commitment, the court must find by clear, cogent, and convincing evidence that the minor:

(a) Is suffering from a mental disorder or substance use disorder;

(b) Presents a likelihood of serious harm or is gravely disabled; and

(c) Is in need of further treatment that only can be provided in a one hundred eighty-day commitment.

(7) In determining whether an inpatient or less restrictive alternative commitment is appropriate, great weight must be given to evidence of a prior history or pattern of decompensation and discontinuation of treatment resulting in: (a) Repeated hospitalizations; or (b) repeated peace officer interventions resulting in juvenile charges. Such evidence may be used to provide a factual basis for concluding that the minor would not receive, if released, such care as is essential for his or her health or safety.

(8)(a) If the court finds that the criteria for commitment are met and that less restrictive treatment in a community setting is not appropriate or available, the court shall order the minor committed to the custody of the director for further inpatient mental health treatment, to an approved substance use disorder treatment program for further substance use disorder treatment, or to a private treatment and evaluation facility for inpatient mental health or substance use disorder treatment if the minor's parents have assumed responsibility for payment for the treatment. If the court finds that a less restrictive alternative is in the best interest of the minor, the court shall order less restrictive alternative treatment upon such conditions as necessary.

(b) If the court determines that the minor does not meet the criteria for one hundred eighty-day commitment, the minor shall be released.

(9) Successive one hundred eighty-day commitments are permissible on the same grounds and under the same procedures as the original one hundred eighty-day commitment. Such petitions shall be filed at least three days prior to the expiration of the previous one hundred eighty-day commitment order.

Sec. 30. RCW 71.34.755 and 2022 c 210 s 21 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Less restrictive alternative treatment, at a minimum, must include the following services:

(a) Assignment of a care coordinator;

(b) An intake evaluation with the provider of the less restrictive alternative treatment;

(c) A psychiatric evaluation, a substance use disorder evaluation, or both;

(d) A schedule of regular contacts with the provider of the less restrictive alternative treatment services for the duration of the order;

(e) A transition plan addressing access to continued services at the expiration of the order;

(f) An individual crisis plan;

(g) Consultation about the formation of a mental health advance directive under chapter 71.32 RCW; and

(h) Notification to the care coordinator assigned in (a) of this subsection if reasonable efforts to engage the client fail to produce substantial compliance with court-ordered treatment conditions.

(2) Less restrictive alternative treatment may include the following additional services:

(a) Medication management;

(b) Psychotherapy;

(c) Nursing;

(d) Substance use disorder counseling;

(e) Residential treatment;

(f) Partial hospitalization;

(g) Intensive outpatient treatment;

(h) Support for housing, benefits, education, and employment; and

(i) Periodic court review.

(3) If the minor was provided with involuntary medication during the involuntary commitment period, the less restrictive alternative treatment order may authorize the less restrictive alternative treatment provider or its designee to administer involuntary antipsychotic medication to the person if the provider has attempted and failed to obtain the informed consent of the person and there is a concurring medical opinion approving the medication by a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or physician or physician assistant in consultation with an independent mental health professional with prescribing authority.

(4) Less restrictive alternative treatment must be administered by a provider that is certified or licensed to provide or coordinate the full scope of services required under the less restrictive alternative order and that has agreed to assume this responsibility.

(5) The care coordinator assigned to a minor ordered to less restrictive alternative treatment must submit an individualized plan for the minor's treatment services to the court that entered the order. An initial plan must be submitted as soon as possible following the intake evaluation and a revised plan must be submitted upon any subsequent modification in which a type of service is removed from or added to the treatment plan.

(6) A care coordinator may disclose information and records related to mental health services pursuant to RCW 70.02.230(2)(k) for purposes of implementing less restrictive alternative treatment.

(7) For the purpose of this section, "care coordinator" means a clinical practitioner who coordinates the activities of less restrictive alternative treatment. The care coordinator coordinates activities with the designated crisis responders that are necessary for enforcement and continuation of less restrictive alternative treatment orders and is responsible for coordinating service activities with other agencies and establishing and maintaining a therapeutic relationship with the individual on a continuing basis.

Sec. 31. RCW 74.09.497 and 2017 c 226 s 2 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) By August 1, 2017, the authority must complete a review of payment codes available to health plans and providers related to primary care and behavioral health. The review must include adjustments to payment rules if needed to facilitate bidirectional integration. The review must involve stakeholders and include consideration of the following principles to the extent allowed by federal law:

(a) Payment rules must allow professionals to operate within the full scope of their practice;

(b) Payment rules should allow medically necessary behavioral health services for covered patients to be provided in any setting;

(c) Payment rules should allow medically necessary primary care services for covered patients to be provided in any setting;

(d) Payment rules and provider communications related to payment should facilitate integration of physical and behavioral health services through multifaceted models, including primary care behavioral health, whole-person care in behavioral health, collaborative care, and other models;

(e) Payment rules should be designed liberally to encourage innovation and ease future transitions to more integrated models of payment and more integrated models of care;

(f) Payment rules should allow health and behavior codes to be reimbursed for all patients in primary care settings as provided by any licensed behavioral health professional operating within their scope of practice, including but not limited to psychiatrists, psychologists, psychiatric advanced registered nurse professionals, physician assistants working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychiatric nurses, mental health counselors, social workers, chemical dependency professionals, chemical dependency professional trainees, marriage and family therapists, and mental health counselor associates under the supervision of a licensed clinician;

(g) Payment rules should allow health and behavior codes to be reimbursed for all patients in behavioral health settings as provided by any licensed health care provider within the provider's scope of practice;

(h) Payment rules which limit same-day billing for providers using the same provider number, require prior authorization for low-level or routine behavioral health care, or prohibit payment when the patient is not present should be implemented only when consistent with national coding conventions and consonant with accepted best practices in the field.

(2) Concurrent with the review described in subsection (1) of this section, the authority must create matrices listing the following codes available for provider payment through medical assistance programs: All behavioral health-related codes; and all physical health-related codes available for payment when provided in licensed behavioral health agencies. The authority must clearly explain applicable payment rules in order to increase awareness among providers, standardize billing practices, and reduce common and avoidable billing errors. The authority must disseminate this information in a manner calculated to maximally reach all relevant plans and providers. The authority must update the provider billing guide to maintain consistency of information.

(3) The authority must inform the governor and relevant committees of the legislature by letter of the steps taken pursuant to this section and results achieved once the work has been completed.

Sec. 32. RCW 9.41.010 and 2023 c 295 s 2, 2023 c 262 s 1, and 2023 c 162 s 2 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter.

(1) "Antique firearm" means a firearm or replica of a firearm not designed or redesigned for using rim fire or conventional center fire ignition with fixed ammunition and manufactured in or before 1898, including any matchlock, flintlock, percussion cap, or similar type of ignition system and also any firearm using fixed ammunition manufactured in or before 1898, for which ammunition is no longer manufactured in the United States and is not readily available in the ordinary channels of commercial trade.

(2)(a) "Assault weapon" means:

(i) Any of the following specific firearms regardless of which company produced and manufactured the firearm:

(ii) A semiautomatic rifle that has an overall length of less than 30 inches;

(iii) A conversion kit, part, or combination of parts, from which an assault weapon can be assembled or from which a firearm can be converted into an assault weapon if those parts are in the possession or under the control of the same person; or

(iv) A semiautomatic, center fire rifle that has the capacity to accept a detachable magazine and has one or more of the following:

(A) A grip that is independent or detached from the stock that protrudes conspicuously beneath the action of the weapon. The addition of a fin attaching the grip to the stock does not exempt the grip if it otherwise resembles the grip found on a pistol;

(B) Thumbhole stock;

(C) Folding or telescoping stock;

(D) Forward pistol, vertical, angled, or other grip designed for use by the nonfiring hand to improve control;

(E) Flash suppressor, flash guard, flash eliminator, flash hider, sound suppressor, silencer, or any item designed to reduce the visual or audio signature of the firearm;

(F) Muzzle brake, recoil compensator, or any item designed to be affixed to the barrel to reduce recoil or muzzle rise;

(G) Threaded barrel designed to attach a flash suppressor, sound suppressor, muzzle break, or similar item;

(H) Grenade launcher or flare launcher; or

(I) A shroud that encircles either all or part of the barrel designed to shield the bearer's hand from heat, except a solid forearm of a stock that covers only the bottom of the barrel;

(v) A semiautomatic, center fire rifle that has a fixed magazine with the capacity to accept more than 10 rounds;

(vi) A semiautomatic pistol that has the capacity to accept a detachable magazine and has one or more of the following:

(A) A threaded barrel, capable of accepting a flash suppressor, forward handgrip, or silencer;

(B) A second hand grip;

(C) A shroud that encircles either all or part of the barrel designed to shield the bearer's hand from heat, except a solid forearm of a stock that covers only the bottom of the barrel; or

(D) The capacity to accept a detachable magazine at some location outside of the pistol grip;

(vii) A semiautomatic shotgun that has any of the following:

(A) A folding or telescoping stock;

(B) A grip that is independent or detached from the stock that protrudes conspicuously beneath the action of the weapon. The addition of a fin attaching the grip to the stock does not exempt the grip if it otherwise resembles the grip found on a pistol;

(C) A thumbhole stock;

(D) A forward pistol, vertical, angled, or other grip designed for use by the nonfiring hand to improve control;

(E) A fixed magazine in excess of seven rounds; or

(F) A revolving cylinder shotgun.

(b) For the purposes of this subsection, "fixed magazine" means an ammunition feeding device contained in, or permanently attached to, a firearm in such a manner that the device cannot be removed without disassembly of the firearm action.

(c) "Assault weapon" does not include antique firearms, any firearm that has been made permanently inoperable, or any firearm that is manually operated by bolt, pump, lever, or slide action.

(3) "Assemble" means to fit together component parts.

(4) "Barrel length" means the distance from the bolt face of a closed action down the length of the axis of the bore to the crown of the muzzle, or in the case of a barrel with attachments to the end of any legal device permanently attached to the end of the muzzle.

(5) "Bump-fire stock" means a butt stock designed to be attached to a semiautomatic firearm with the effect of increasing the rate of fire achievable with the semiautomatic firearm to that of a fully automatic firearm by using the energy from the recoil of the firearm to generate reciprocating action that facilitates repeated activation of the trigger.

(6) "Conviction" or "convicted" means, whether in an adult court or adjudicated in a juvenile court, that a plea of guilty has been accepted or a verdict of guilty has been filed, or a finding of guilt has been entered, notwithstanding the pendency of any future proceedings including, but not limited to, sentencing or disposition, posttrial or post-fact-finding motions, and appeals. "Conviction" includes a dismissal entered after a period of probation, suspension, or deferral of sentence, and also includes equivalent dispositions by courts in jurisdictions other than Washington state.

(7) "Crime of violence" means:

(a) Any of the following felonies, as now existing or hereafter amended: Any felony defined under any law as a class A felony or an attempt to commit a class A felony, criminal solicitation of or criminal conspiracy to commit a class A felony, manslaughter in the first degree, manslaughter in the second degree, indecent liberties if committed by forcible compulsion, kidnapping in the second degree, arson in the second degree, assault in the second degree, assault of a child in the second degree, extortion in the first degree, burglary in the second degree, residential burglary, and robbery in the second degree;

(b) Any conviction for a felony offense in effect at any time prior to June 6, 1996, which is comparable to a felony classified as a crime of violence in (a) of this subsection; and

(c) Any federal or out-of-state conviction for an offense comparable to a felony classified as a crime of violence under (a) or (b) of this subsection.

(8) "Curio or relic" has the same meaning as provided in 27 C.F.R. Sec. 478.11.

(9) "Dealer" means a person engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail who has, or is required to have, a federal firearms license under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 923(a). A person who does not have, and is not required to have, a federal firearms license under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 923(a), is not a dealer if that person makes only occasional sales, exchanges, or purchases of firearms for the enhancement of a personal collection or for a hobby, or sells all or part of his or her personal collection of firearms.

(10) "Detachable magazine" means an ammunition feeding device that can be loaded or unloaded while detached from a firearm and readily inserted into a firearm.

(11) "Distribute" means to give out, provide, make available, or deliver a firearm or large capacity magazine to any person in this state, with or without consideration, whether the distributor is in-state or out-of-state. "Distribute" includes, but is not limited to, filling orders placed in this state, online or otherwise. "Distribute" also includes causing a firearm or large capacity magazine to be delivered in this state.

(12) "Domestic violence" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 10.99.020.

(13) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in RCW 7.105.010.

(14) "Federal firearms dealer" means a licensed dealer as defined in 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921(a)(11).

(15) "Federal firearms importer" means a licensed importer as defined in 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921(a)(9).

(16) "Federal firearms manufacturer" means a licensed manufacturer as defined in 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921(a)(10).

(17) "Felony" means any felony offense under the laws of this state or any federal or out-of-state offense comparable to a felony offense under the laws of this state.

(18) "Felony firearm offender" means a person who has previously been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity in this state of any felony firearm offense. A person is not a felony firearm offender under this chapter if any and all qualifying offenses have been the subject of an expungement, pardon, annulment, certificate, or rehabilitation, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of the rehabilitation of the person convicted or a pardon, annulment, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of innocence.

(19) "Felony firearm offense" means:

(a) Any felony offense that is a violation of this chapter;

(b) A violation of RCW 9A.36.045;

(c) A violation of RCW 9A.56.300;

(d) A violation of RCW 9A.56.310;

(e) Any felony offense if the offender was armed with a firearm in the commission of the offense.

(20) "Firearm" means a weapon or device from which a projectile or projectiles may be fired by an explosive such as gunpowder. For the purposes of RCW 9.41.040, "firearm" also includes frames and receivers. "Firearm" does not include a flare gun or other pyrotechnic visual distress signaling device, or a powder-actuated tool or other device designed solely to be used for construction purposes.

(21)(a) "Frame or receiver" means a part of a firearm that, when the complete firearm is assembled, is visible from the exterior and provides housing or a structure designed to hold or integrate one or more fire control components, even if pins or other attachments are required to connect the fire control components. Any such part identified with a serial number shall be presumed, absent an official determination by the bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms, and explosives or other reliable evidence to the contrary, to be a frame or receiver.

(b) For purposes of this subsection, "fire control component" means a component necessary for the firearm to initiate, complete, or continue the firing sequence, including any of the following: Hammer, bolt, bolt carrier, breechblock, cylinder, trigger mechanism, firing pin, striker, or slide rails.

(22) "Gun" has the same meaning as firearm.

(23) "Import" means to move, transport, or receive an item from a place outside the territorial limits of the state of Washington to a place inside the territorial limits of the state of Washington. "Import" does not mean situations where an individual possesses a large capacity magazine or assault weapon when departing from, and returning to, Washington state, so long as the individual is returning to Washington in possession of the same large capacity magazine or assault weapon the individual transported out of state.

(24) "Intimate partner" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 7.105.010.

(25) "Large capacity magazine" means an ammunition feeding device with the capacity to accept more than 10 rounds of ammunition, or any conversion kit, part, or combination of parts, from which such a device can be assembled if those parts are in possession of or under the control of the same person, but shall not be construed to include any of the following:

(a) An ammunition feeding device that has been permanently altered so that it cannot accommodate more than 10 rounds of ammunition;

(b) A 22 caliber tube ammunition feeding device; or

(c) A tubular magazine that is contained in a lever-action firearm.

(26) "Law enforcement officer" includes a general authority Washington peace officer as defined in RCW 10.93.020, or a specially commissioned Washington peace officer as defined in RCW 10.93.020. "Law enforcement officer" also includes a limited authority Washington peace officer as defined in RCW 10.93.020 if such officer is duly authorized by his or her employer to carry a concealed pistol.

(27) "Lawful permanent resident" has the same meaning afforded a person "lawfully admitted for permanent residence" in 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1101(a)(20).

(28) "Licensed collector" means a person who is federally licensed under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 923(b).

(29) "Licensed dealer" means a person who is federally licensed under 18 U.S.C. Sec. 923(a).

(30) "Loaded" means:

(a) There is a cartridge in the chamber of the firearm;

(b) Cartridges are in a clip that is locked in place in the firearm;

(c) There is a cartridge in the cylinder of the firearm, if the firearm is a revolver;

(d) There is a cartridge in the tube or magazine that is inserted in the action; or

(e) There is a ball in the barrel and the firearm is capped or primed if the firearm is a muzzle loader.

(31) "Machine gun" means any firearm known as a machine gun, mechanical rifle, submachine gun, or any other mechanism or instrument not requiring that the trigger be pressed for each shot and having a reservoir clip, disc, drum, belt, or other separable mechanical device for storing, carrying, or supplying ammunition which can be loaded into the firearm, mechanism, or instrument, and fired therefrom at the rate of five or more shots per second.

(32) "Manufacture" means, with respect to a firearm or large capacity magazine, the fabrication, making, formation, production, or construction of a firearm or large capacity magazine, by manual labor or by machinery.

(33) "Mental health professional" means a psychiatrist, psychologist, or physician assistant working with a ((supervising)) psychiatrist who is acting as a participating physician as defined in RCW 18.71A.010, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, psychiatric nurse, social worker, mental health counselor, marriage and family therapist, or such other mental health professionals as may be defined in statute or by rules adopted by the department of health pursuant to the provisions of chapter 71.05 RCW.

(34) "Nonimmigrant alien" means a person defined as such in 8 U.S.C. Sec. 1101(a)(15).

(35) "Person" means any individual, corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, club, organization, society, joint stock company, or other legal entity.

(36) "Pistol" means any firearm with a barrel less than 16 inches in length, or is designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand.

(37) "Rifle" means a weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder and designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to use the energy of the explosive in a fixed metallic cartridge to fire only a single projectile through a rifled bore for each single pull of the trigger.

(38) "Sale" and "sell" mean the actual approval of the delivery of a firearm in consideration of payment or promise of payment.

(39) "Secure gun storage" means:

(a) A locked box, gun safe, or other secure locked storage space that is designed to prevent unauthorized use or discharge of a firearm; and

(b) The act of keeping an unloaded firearm stored by such means.

(40) "Semiautomatic" means any firearm which utilizes a portion of the energy of a firing cartridge to extract the fired cartridge case and chamber the next round, and which requires a separate pull of the trigger to fire each cartridge.

(41)(a) "Semiautomatic assault rifle" means any rifle which utilizes a portion of the energy of a firing cartridge to extract the fired cartridge case and chamber the next round, and which requires a separate pull of the trigger to fire each cartridge.

(b) "Semiautomatic assault rifle" does not include antique firearms, any firearm that has been made permanently inoperable, or any firearm that is manually operated by bolt, pump, lever, or slide action.

(42) "Serious offense" means any of the following felonies or a felony attempt to commit any of the following felonies, as now existing or hereafter amended:

(a) Any crime of violence;

(b) Any felony violation of the uniform controlled substances act, chapter 69.50 RCW, that is classified as a class B felony or that has a maximum term of imprisonment of at least 10 years;

(c) Child molestation in the second degree;

(d) Incest when committed against a child under age 14;

(e) Indecent liberties;

(f) Leading organized crime;

(g) Promoting prostitution in the first degree;

(h) Rape in the third degree;

(i) Drive-by shooting;

(j) Sexual exploitation;

(k) Vehicular assault, when caused by the operation or driving of a vehicle by a person while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug or by the operation or driving of a vehicle in a reckless manner;

(l) Vehicular homicide, when proximately caused by the driving of any vehicle by any person while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or any drug as defined by RCW 46.61.502, or by the operation of any vehicle in a reckless manner;

(m) Any other class B felony offense with a finding of sexual motivation, as "sexual motivation" is defined under RCW 9.94A.030;

(n) Any other felony with a deadly weapon verdict under RCW 9.94A.825;

(o) Any felony offense in effect at any time prior to June 6, 1996, that is comparable to a serious offense, or any federal or out-of-state conviction for an offense that under the laws of this state would be a felony classified as a serious offense;

(p) Any felony conviction under RCW 9.41.115; or

(q) Any felony charged under RCW 46.61.502(6) or 46.61.504(6).

(43) "Sex offense" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 9.94A.030.

(44) "Short-barreled rifle" means a rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length and any weapon made from a rifle by any means of modification if such modified weapon has an overall length of less than 26 inches.

(45) "Short-barreled shotgun" means a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length and any weapon made from a shotgun by any means of modification if such modified weapon has an overall length of less than 26 inches.

(46) "Shotgun" means a weapon with one or more barrels, designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder and designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to use the energy of the explosive in a fixed shotgun shell to fire through a smooth bore either a number of ball shot or a single projectile for each single pull of the trigger.

(47) "Substance use disorder professional" means a person certified under chapter 18.205 RCW.

(48) "Transfer" means the intended delivery of a firearm to another person without consideration of payment or promise of payment including, but not limited to, gifts and loans. "Transfer" does not include the delivery of a firearm owned or leased by an entity licensed or qualified to do business in the state of Washington to, or return of such a firearm by, any of that entity's employees or agents, defined to include volunteers participating in an honor guard, for lawful purposes in the ordinary course of business.

(49) "Undetectable firearm" means any firearm that is not as detectable as 3.7 ounces of 17-4 PH stainless steel by walk-through metal detectors or magnetometers commonly used at airports or any firearm where the barrel, the slide or cylinder, or the frame or receiver of the firearm would not generate an image that accurately depicts the shape of the part when examined by the types of X-ray machines commonly used at airports.

(50)(a) "Unfinished frame or receiver" means a frame or receiver that is partially complete, disassembled, or inoperable, that: (i) Has reached a stage in manufacture where it may readily be completed, assembled, converted, or restored to a functional state; or (ii) is marketed or sold to the public to become or be used as the frame or receiver of a functional firearm once finished or completed, including without limitation products marketed or sold to the public as an 80 percent frame or receiver or unfinished frame or receiver.

(b) For purposes of this subsection:

(i) "Readily" means a process that is fairly or reasonably efficient, quick, and easy, but not necessarily the most efficient, speedy, or easy process. Factors relevant in making this determination, with no single one controlling, include the following: (A) Time, i.e., how long it takes to finish the process; (B) ease, i.e., how difficult it is to do so; (C) expertise, i.e., what knowledge and skills are required; (D) equipment, i.e., what tools are required; (E) availability, i.e., whether additional parts are required, and how easily they can be obtained; (F) expense, i.e., how much it costs; (G) scope, i.e., the extent to which the subject of the process must be changed to finish it; and (H) feasibility, i.e., whether the process would damage or destroy the subject of the process, or cause it to malfunction.

(ii) "Partially complete," as it modifies frame or receiver, means a forging, casting, printing, extrusion, machined body, or similar article that has reached a stage in manufacture where it is clearly identifiable as an unfinished component part of a firearm.

(51) "Unlicensed person" means any person who is not a licensed dealer under this chapter.

(52) "Untraceable firearm" means any firearm manufactured after July 1, 2019, that is not an antique firearm and that cannot be traced by law enforcement by means of a serial number affixed to the firearm by a federal firearms manufacturer, federal firearms importer, or federal firearms dealer in compliance with all federal laws and regulations.

NEW SECTION.  Sec. 33. Sections 1 through 8, 10 through 18, 20 through 26, 28, and 30 through 32 of this act take effect January 1, 2025.

NEW SECTION.  Sec. 34. Section 18 of this act expires when section 2, chapter 210, Laws of 2022 takes effect.

NEW SECTION.  Sec. 37. Section 27 of this act takes effect when section 26 of this act expires.

NEW SECTION.  Sec. 38. Section 28 of this act expires July 1, 2026.

NEW SECTION.  Sec. 39. Section 29 of this act takes effect July 1, 2026.

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