S-3543.4

SENATE BILL 6008

State of Washington

68th Legislature

2024 Regular Session

BySenators Trudeau, Torres, Frame, Nguyen, Salomon, Valdez, and C. Wilson

Prefiled 01/05/24.Read first time 01/08/24.Referred to Committee on Law & Justice.

AN ACT Relating to updating terminology related to criminal insanity and competency to stand trial; amending RCW 10.77.050, 10.77.060, 10.77.065, 10.77.068, 10.77.072, 10.77.084, 10.77.0845, 10.77.074, 10.77.075, 10.77.078, 10.77.0885, 10.77.089, 10.77.092, 10.77.093, 10.77.0942, 10.77.095, 10.77.145, 10.77.200, 10.77.202, 10.77.250, 10.77.255, 10.77.270, 10.77.310, 10.77.320, 10.77.940, 4.24.550, 7.68.250, 9.41.098, 9.94B.080, 9.98.010, 9A.12.010, 10.01.160, 41.37.010, 46.20.031, 70.02.230, 70.74.360, 70.74.370, 71.05.212, 71.05.212, 71.05.217, 71.05.280, 71.05.290, 71.05.300, 71.05.940, 71.09.010, 71.09.025, 71.09.030, 71.09.060, and 71A.12.025; reenacting and amending RCW 10.77.010, 10.77.086, 10.77.088, 10.97.030, 9.41.040, 9.41.047, 70.02.010, 71.05.020, 71.05.020, and 74.13.075; creating a new section; and providing a contingent effective date.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF WASHINGTON:

Sec. 1. RCW 10.77.010 and 2023 c 453 s 2 and 2023 c 120 s 5 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

As used in this chapter:

(1) "Admission" means acceptance based on medical necessity, of a person as a patient.

(2) "Authority" means the Washington state health care authority.

(3) "Clinical intervention specialist" means a licensed professional with prescribing authority who is employed by or contracted with the department to provide direct services, enhanced oversight and monitoring of the behavioral health status of in-custody defendants who have been referred for evaluation or restoration services related to ((competency to stand))ability to proceed to trial and who coordinate treatment options with forensic navigators, the department, and jail health services.

(4) "Commitment" means the determination by a court that a person should be detained for a period of either evaluation or treatment, or both, in an inpatient or a less-restrictive setting.

(5) "Community behavioral health agency" has the same meaning as "licensed or certified behavioral health agency" defined in RCW 71.24.025.

(6) "Conditional release" means modification of a court-ordered commitment, which may be revoked upon violation of any of its terms.

(7) A "criminally insane" person means any person who has been acquitted of a crime charged by reason of insanity, and thereupon found to be a substantial danger to other persons or to present a substantial likelihood of committing criminal acts jeopardizing public safety or security unless kept under further control by the court or other persons or institutions.

(8) "Department" means the state department of social and health services.

(9) "Designated crisis responder" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 71.05.020.

(10) "Detention" or "detain" means the lawful confinement of a person, under the provisions of this chapter, pending evaluation.

(11) "Developmental disabilities professional" means a person who has specialized training and experience in directly treating or working with persons with developmental disabilities and is a psychiatrist or psychologist, or a social worker, and such other developmental disabilities professionals as may be defined by rules adopted by the secretary.

(12) "Developmental disability" means the condition as defined in RCW 71A.10.020.

(13) "Discharge" means the termination of hospital medical authority. The commitment may remain in place, be terminated, or be amended by court order.

(14) "Furlough" means an authorized leave of absence for a resident of a state institution operated by the department designated for the custody, care, and treatment of the criminally insane, consistent with an order of conditional release from the court under this chapter, without any requirement that the resident be accompanied by, or be in the custody of, any law enforcement or institutional staff, while on such unescorted leave.

(15) "Genuine doubt as to ((competency))ability to proceed" means that there is reasonable cause to believe, based upon actual interactions with or observations of the defendant or information provided by counsel, that a defendant is ((incompetent to stand))unable to proceed to trial.

(16) "Habilitative services" means those services provided by program personnel to assist persons in acquiring and maintaining life skills and in raising their levels of physical, mental, social, and vocational functioning. Habilitative services include education, training for employment, and therapy. The habilitative process shall be undertaken with recognition of the risk to the public safety presented by the person being assisted as manifested by prior charged criminal conduct.

(17) "History of one or more violent acts" means violent acts committed during: (a) The 10-year period of time prior to the filing of criminal charges; plus (b) the amount of time equal to time spent during the 10-year period in a mental health facility or in confinement as a result of a criminal conviction.

(18) "Immediate family member" means a spouse, child, stepchild, parent, stepparent, grandparent, sibling, or domestic partner.

(19) (("Incompetency"))"Inability to proceed" means a person lacks the ((capacity))present ability to understand the nature of the proceedings against him or her or to assist in his or her own defense as a result of ((mental disease or defect))a mental disorder.

(20) "Indigent" means any person who is indigent as defined in RCW 10.101.010, or financially unable to obtain counsel or other necessary expert or professional services without causing substantial hardship to the person or his or her family.

(21) "Individualized service plan" means a plan prepared by a developmental disabilities professional with other professionals as a team, for an individual with developmental disabilities, which shall state:

(a) The nature of the person's specific problems, prior charged criminal behavior, and habilitation needs;

(b) The conditions and strategies necessary to achieve the purposes of habilitation;

(d) The rationale for using this plan of habilitation to achieve those intermediate and long-range goals;

(e) The staff responsible for carrying out the plan;

(f) Where relevant in light of past criminal behavior and due consideration for public safety, the criteria for proposed movement to less-restrictive settings, criteria for proposed eventual release, and a projected possible date for release; and

(g) The type of residence immediately anticipated for the person and possible future types of residences.

(22) "Professional person" means:

(a) A psychiatrist licensed as a physician and surgeon in this state who has, in addition, completed three years of graduate training in psychiatry in a program approved by the American medical association or the American osteopathic association and is certified or eligible to be certified by the American board of psychiatry and neurology or the American osteopathic board of neurology and psychiatry;

(b) A psychologist licensed as a psychologist pursuant to chapter 18.83 RCW;

(d) A social worker with a master's or further advanced degree from a social work educational program accredited and approved as provided in RCW 18.320.010.

(23) "Release" means legal termination of the court-ordered commitment under the provisions of this chapter.

(24) "Secretary" means the secretary of the department of social and health services or his or her designee.

(25) "Treatment" means any currently standardized medical or mental health procedure including medication.

(26) "Treatment records" include registration and all other records concerning persons who are receiving or who at any time have received services for mental illness, which are maintained by the department, by behavioral health administrative services organizations and their staffs, by managed care organizations and their staffs, and by treatment facilities. Treatment records do not include notes or records maintained for personal use by a person providing treatment services for the department, behavioral health administrative services organizations, managed care organizations, or a treatment facility if the notes or records are not available to others.

(27) "Violent act" means behavior that: (a)(i) Resulted in; (ii) if completed as intended would have resulted in; or (iii) was threatened to be carried out by a person who had the intent and opportunity to carry out the threat and would have resulted in, homicide, nonfatal injuries, or substantial damage to property; or (b) recklessly creates an immediate risk of serious physical injury to another person. As used in this subsection, "nonfatal injuries" means physical pain or injury, illness, or an impairment of physical condition. "Nonfatal injuries" shall be construed to be consistent with the definition of "bodily injury," as defined in RCW 9A.04.110.

(28) "Ability to proceed" or "able to proceed" refers to the present ability of a person to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings against him or her or to assist in his or her own defense.

(29) "Mental disorder" has the same meaning as under RCW 71.05.020.

(30) "Restoration" or "restoration treatment" means a process by which a defendant adjudicated unable to proceed undergoes court-ordered mental health treatment combined with didactic instruction for the purpose of rendering the defendant amenable to trial.

(31) "Unable to proceed" means the same as "inability to proceed."

Sec. 2. RCW 10.77.050 and 1974 ex.s. c 198 s 5 are each amended to read as follows:

No ((incompetent)) person who is unable to proceed shall be tried, convicted, or sentenced for the commission of an offense so long as such ((incapacity))inability continues.

Sec. 3. RCW 10.77.060 and 2023 c 453 s 3 are each amended to read as follows:

(1)(a) Whenever a defendant has pleaded not guilty by reason of insanity, the court on its own motion or on the motion of any party shall either appoint or request the secretary to designate a qualified expert or professional person, who shall be approved by the prosecuting attorney, to evaluate and report upon the mental condition of the defendant.

(b)(i) Whenever there is a doubt as to ((competency))ability to proceed, the court on its own motion or on the motion of any party shall first review the allegations of ((incompetency))inability to proceed. The court shall make a determination of whether sufficient facts have been provided to form a genuine doubt as to ((competency))ability to proceed based on information provided by counsel, judicial colloquy, or direct observation of the defendant. If a genuine doubt as to ((competency))ability to proceed exists, the court shall either appoint or request the secretary to designate a qualified expert or professional person, who shall be approved by the prosecuting attorney, to evaluate and report upon the mental condition of the defendant.

(ii) Nothing in this subsection (1)(b) is intended to require a waiver of attorney-client privilege. Defense counsel may meet the requirements under this subsection (1)(b) by filing a declaration stating that they have reason to believe that ((a competency))an ability to proceed evaluation is necessary, and stating the basis on which the defendant is believed to be ((incompetent))unable to proceed.

(c) The signed order of the court shall serve as authority for the evaluator to be given access to all records held by any mental health, medical, long-term services or supports, educational, or correctional facility that relate to the present or past mental, emotional, or physical condition of the defendant. If the court is advised by any party that the defendant may have a developmental disability, the evaluation must be performed by a developmental disabilities professional and the evaluator shall have access to records of the developmental disabilities administration of the department. If the court is advised by any party that the defendant may have dementia or another relevant neurocognitive disorder, the evaluator shall have access to records of the aging and long-term support administration of the department.

(d) The evaluator shall assess the defendant in a jail, detention facility, in the community, or in court to determine whether a period of inpatient commitment will be necessary to complete an accurate evaluation. If inpatient commitment is needed, the signed order of the court shall serve as authority for the evaluator to request the jail or detention facility to transport the defendant to a hospital or secure mental health facility for a period of commitment not to exceed fifteen days from the time of admission to the facility. Otherwise, the evaluator shall complete the evaluation.

(e) The court may commit the defendant for evaluation to a hospital or secure mental health facility without an assessment if: (i) The defendant is charged with murder in the first or second degree; (ii) the court finds that it is more likely than not that an evaluation in the jail will be inadequate to complete an accurate evaluation; or (iii) the court finds that an evaluation outside the jail setting is necessary for the health, safety, or welfare of the defendant. The court shall not order an initial inpatient evaluation for any purpose other than ((a competency))an ability to proceed evaluation.

(f) The order shall indicate whether, in the event the defendant is committed to a hospital or secure mental health facility for evaluation, all parties agree to waive the presence of the defendant or to the defendant's remote participation at a subsequent ((competency))ability to proceed hearing or presentation of an agreed order if the recommendation of the evaluator is for continuation of the stay of criminal proceedings, or if the opinion of the evaluator is that the defendant remains ((incompetent))unable to proceed and there is no remaining restoration period, and the hearing is held prior to the expiration of the authorized commitment period.

(g) When a defendant is ordered to be evaluated under this subsection (1), or when a party or the court determines at first appearance that an order for evaluation under this subsection will be requested or ordered if charges are pursued, the court may delay granting bail until the defendant has been evaluated for ((competency))ability to proceed or sanity and appears before the court. Following the evaluation, in determining bail the court shall consider: (i) Recommendations of the evaluator regarding the defendant's ((competency))ability to proceed, sanity, or diminished capacity; (ii) whether the defendant has a recent history of one or more violent acts; (iii) whether the defendant has previously been acquitted by reason of insanity or found ((incompetent))unable to proceed; (iv) whether it is reasonably likely the defendant will fail to appear for a future court hearing; and (v) whether the defendant is a threat to public safety.

(h) If the defendant ordered to be evaluated under this subsection (1) is charged with a serious traffic offense under RCW 9.94A.030, or a felony version of a serious traffic offense, the prosecutor may make a motion to modify the defendant's conditions of release to include a condition prohibiting the defendant from driving during the pendency of the ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation period.

(2) The court may direct that a qualified expert or professional person retained by or appointed for the defendant be permitted to witness the evaluation authorized by subsection (1) of this section, and that the defendant shall have access to all information obtained by the court appointed experts or professional persons. The defendant's expert or professional person shall have the right to file his or her own report following the guidelines of subsection (3) of this section. If the defendant is indigent, the court shall upon the request of the defendant assist him or her in obtaining an expert or professional person.

(3) The report of the evaluation shall include the following:

(a) A description of the nature of the evaluation;

(b) A diagnosis or description of the current mental status of the defendant;

(c) If the defendant has a mental ((disease or defect))disorder, or has a developmental disability, an opinion as to ((competency))ability to proceed;

(d) If the defendant has indicated his or her intention to rely on the defense of insanity pursuant to RCW 10.77.030, and an evaluation and report by an expert or professional person has been provided concluding that the defendant was criminally insane at the time of the alleged offense, an opinion as to the defendant's sanity at the time of the act, and an opinion as to whether the defendant presents a substantial danger to other persons, or presents a substantial likelihood of committing criminal acts jeopardizing public safety or security, unless kept under further control by the court or other persons or institutions, provided that no opinion shall be rendered under this subsection (3)(d) unless the evaluator or court determines that the defendant is ((competent to stand trial))able to proceed to trial;

(e) When directed by the court, if an evaluation and report by an expert or professional person has been provided concluding that the defendant lacked the capacity at the time of the offense to form the mental state necessary to commit the charged offense, an opinion as to the capacity of the defendant to have a particular state of mind which is an element of the offense charged;

(f) An opinion as to whether the defendant should be evaluated by a designated crisis responder under chapter 71.05 RCW.

(4) The secretary may execute such agreements as appropriate and necessary to implement this section and may choose to designate more than one evaluator.

(5) In the event that a person remains in jail more than 21 days after service on the department of a court order to transport the person to a facility designated by the department for inpatient ((competency)) restoration treatment, upon the request of any party and with notice to all parties, the department shall perform ((a competency to stand))an ability to proceed to trial status check to determine if the circumstances of the person have changed such that the court should authorize an updated ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation. The status update shall be provided to the parties and the court. Status updates may be provided at reasonable intervals.

(6) If a finding of the ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation under this section or under RCW 10.77.084 is that the individual is ((not competent))unable to proceed due to an intellectual or developmental disability, dementia, or traumatic brain injury, the evaluator shall notify the department, which shall refer the individual to the developmental disabilities administration or the aging and long-term support administration of the department for review of eligibility for services. The department shall inform the forensic navigator about availability of services.

(7) If the expert or professional person appointed to perform ((a competency))an ability to proceed evaluation in the community is not able to complete the evaluation after two attempts at scheduling with the defendant, the department shall submit a report to the court and parties and include a date and time for another evaluation which must be at least four weeks later. The court shall provide notice to the defendant of the date and time of the evaluation. If the defendant fails to appear at that appointment, the court shall recall the order for ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation and may issue a warrant for the failure to appear.

Sec. 4. RCW 10.77.065 and 2023 c 453 s 20 are each amended to read as follows:

(1)(a)(i) The expert conducting the evaluation shall provide his or her report and recommendation to the court in which the criminal proceeding is pending. For ((a competency))an ability to proceed evaluation of a defendant who is released from custody, if the evaluation cannot be completed within twenty-one days due to a lack of cooperation by the defendant, the evaluator shall notify the court that he or she is unable to complete the evaluation because of such lack of cooperation.

(ii) A copy of the report and recommendation shall be provided to the designated crisis responder, the prosecuting attorney, the defense attorney, and the professional person at the local correctional facility where the defendant is being held, or if there is no professional person, to the person designated under (a)(iv) of this subsection. Upon request, the evaluator shall also provide copies of any source documents relevant to the evaluation to the designated crisis responder.

(iii) Any facility providing inpatient services related to ((competency))ability to proceed shall discharge the defendant as soon as the facility determines that the defendant is ((competent to stand trial))able to proceed. Discharge shall not be postponed during the writing and distribution of the evaluation report. Distribution of an evaluation report by a facility providing inpatient services shall ordinarily be accomplished within two working days or less following the final evaluation of the defendant. If the defendant is discharged to the custody of a local correctional facility, the local correctional facility must continue the medication regimen prescribed by the facility, when clinically appropriate, unless the defendant refuses to cooperate with medication and an involuntary medication order by the court has not been entered.

(iv) If there is no professional person at the local correctional facility, the local correctional facility shall designate a professional person as defined in RCW 71.05.020 or, in cooperation with the behavioral health administrative services organization, a professional person at the behavioral health administrative services organization to receive the report and recommendation.

(v) Upon commencement of a defendant's evaluation in the local correctional facility, the local correctional facility must notify the evaluator of the name of the professional person, or person designated under (a)(iv) of this subsection, to receive the report and recommendation.

(b) If the evaluator concludes, under RCW 10.77.060(3)(f), the person should be evaluated by a designated crisis responder under chapter 71.05 RCW, the court shall order such evaluation be conducted prior to release from confinement when the person is acquitted or convicted and sentenced to confinement for twenty-four months or less, or when charges are dismissed pursuant to a finding of ((incompetent to stand))unable to proceed to trial.

(2) The designated crisis responder shall provide written notification within twenty-four hours of the results of the determination whether to commence proceedings under chapter 71.05 RCW. The notification shall be provided to the persons identified in subsection (1)(a) of this section.

(3) The prosecuting attorney shall provide a copy of the results of any proceedings commenced by the designated crisis responder under subsection (2) of this section to the secretary.

(4) A facility conducting a civil commitment evaluation under RCW 10.77.086(7) or 10.77.088(6)(b) that makes a determination to release the person instead of filing a civil commitment petition must provide written notice to the prosecutor and defense attorney at least twenty-four hours prior to release. The notice may be given by email, facsimile, or other means reasonably likely to communicate the information immediately.

(5) The fact of admission and all information and records compiled, obtained, or maintained in the course of providing services under this chapter may also be disclosed to the courts solely to prevent the entry of any evaluation or treatment order that is inconsistent with any order entered under chapter 71.05 RCW.

Sec. 5. RCW 10.77.068 and 2023 c 453 s 4 are each amended to read as follows:

(1)(a) The legislature establishes a performance target of seven days or fewer to extend an offer of admission to a defendant in pretrial custody for inpatient ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation or inpatient ((competency)) restoration services, when access to the services is legally authorized.

(b) The legislature establishes a performance target of 14 days or fewer for the following services related to ((competency to stand trial))ability to proceed, when access to the services is legally authorized:

(i) To complete ((a competency))an ability to proceed evaluation in jail and distribute the evaluation report; and

(ii) To extend an offer of admission to a defendant ordered to be committed to the department for placement in a facility operated by or contracted by the department following dismissal of charges based on ((incompetency to stand))inability to proceed to trial under RCW 10.77.086.

(c) The legislature establishes a performance target of 21 days or fewer to complete ((a competency))an ability to proceed evaluation in the community and distribute the evaluation report.

(2)(a) A maximum time limit of seven days as measured from the department's receipt of the court order, or a maximum time limit of 14 days as measured from signature of the court order, whichever is shorter, is established to complete the services specified in subsection (1)(a) of this section, subject to the limitations under subsection (9) of this section.

(b) A maximum time limit of 14 days as measured from the department's receipt of the court order, or a maximum time limit of 21 days as measured from signature of the court order, whichever is shorter, is established to complete the services specified in subsection (1)(b) of this section, subject to the limitations under subsection (9) of this section.

(3) The legislature recognizes that these targets may not be achievable in all cases, but intends for the department to manage, allocate, and request appropriations for resources in order to meet these targets whenever possible without sacrificing the accuracy and quality of ((competency))ability to proceed services.

(4) It shall be a defense to an allegation that the department has exceeded the maximum time limits for completion of ((competency))ability to proceed services described in subsection (2) of this section if the department can demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence that the reason for exceeding the maximum time limits was outside of the department's control including, but not limited to, the following circumstances:

(a) Despite a timely request, the department has not received necessary medical information regarding the current medical status of a defendant;

(b) The individual circumstances of the defendant make accurate completion of an evaluation of ((competency to stand))ability to proceed to trial dependent upon review of mental health, substance use disorder, or medical history information which is in the custody of a third party and cannot be immediately obtained by the department, provided that completion shall not be postponed for procurement of information which is merely supplementary;

(c) Additional time is needed for the defendant to no longer show active signs and symptoms of impairment related to substance use so that an accurate evaluation may be completed;

(d) The defendant is medically unavailable for ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation or admission to a facility for ((competency)) restoration treatment;

(e) Completion of the referral requires additional time to accommodate the availability or participation of counsel, court personnel, interpreters, or the defendant;

(f) The defendant asserts legal rights that result in a delay in the provision of ((competency))ability to proceed services; or

(g) An unusual spike in the receipt of evaluation referrals or in the number of defendants requiring restoration services has occurred, causing temporary delays until the unexpected excess demand for ((competency))ability to proceed services can be resolved.

(5) The department shall provide written notice to the court when it will not be able to meet the maximum time limits under subsection (2) of this section and identify the reasons for the delay and provide a reasonable estimate of the time necessary to complete the ((competency))ability to proceed service. Good cause for an extension for the additional time estimated by the department shall be presumed absent a written response from the court or a party received by the department within seven days.

(6) The department shall:

(a) Develop, document, and implement procedures to monitor the clinical status of defendants admitted to a state hospital for ((competency))ability to proceed services that allow the state hospital to accomplish early discharge for defendants for whom clinical objectives have been achieved or may be achieved before expiration of the commitment period;

(b) Investigate the extent to which patients admitted to a state hospital under this chapter overstay time periods authorized by law and take reasonable steps to limit the time of commitment to authorized periods; and

(c) Establish written standards for the productivity of forensic evaluators and utilize these standards to internally review the performance of forensic evaluators.

(7) Following any quarter in which a state hospital has failed to meet one or more of the performance targets or maximum time limits under subsection (1) or (2) of this section, the department shall report to the executive and the legislature the extent of this deviation and describe any corrective action being taken to improve performance. This report shall be made publicly available. An average may be used to determine timeliness under this subsection.

(8) The department shall report annually to the legislature and the executive on the timeliness of services related to ((competency to stand))ability to proceed to trial and the timeliness with which court referrals accompanied by charging documents, discovery, and criminal history information are provided to the department relative to the signature date of the court order. The report must be in a form that is accessible to the public and that breaks down performance by county.

(9) This section does not create any new entitlement or cause of action related to the timeliness of ((competency to stand))ability to proceed to trial services, nor can it form the basis for contempt sanctions under chapter 7.21 RCW or a motion to dismiss criminal charges.

Sec. 6. RCW 10.77.072 and 2023 c 453 s 10 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) In counties with a forensic navigator program, a forensic navigator shall:

(a) Meet, interview, and observe all defendants charged with a nonfelony, or a class C felony other than assault in the third degree under RCW 9A.36.031(1) (d) or (f), felony physical control of a vehicle under RCW 46.61.504(6), felony hit and run resulting in injury under RCW 46.52.020(4)(b), a hate crime offense under RCW 9A.36.080, a class C felony with a domestic violence designation, a class C felony sex offense as defined in RCW 9.94A.030, or a class C felony with a sexual motivation allegation, who have had two or more cases dismissed due to a finding of ((incompetency to stand))inability to proceed to trial in the preceding 24 months and who are at risk for a finding of ((incompetency))inability to proceed under their current charge. The forensic navigator shall determine the defendants' willingness to engage with services under this section; and

(b) Provide a diversion program plan to the parties in each case that includes a recommendation for a diversion program to defense counsel and the prosecuting attorney. Services under a diversion program may include a referral for assisted outpatient treatment under chapter 71.05 RCW.

(2) The court shall dismiss the criminal charges upon agreement of the parties that the defendant has been accepted into the diversion program recommended by the forensic navigator.

(3)(a) For defendants charged with a nonfelony, the court may order the defendant to a diversion program if recommended by the forensic navigator. Upon engagement with the diversion program, the defense may move to dismiss the charges without prejudice. The court shall hold a hearing on this motion within 10 days. The court shall grant the defense motion if it finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant is amenable to the services described in the diversion program and can safely receive services in the community.

(b) For defendants charged with a class C felony other than assault in the third degree under RCW 9A.36.031(1) (d) or (f), felony physical control of a vehicle under RCW 46.61.504(6), felony hit and run resulting in injury under RCW 46.52.020(4)(b), a hate crime offense under RCW 9A.36.080, a class C felony with a domestic violence designation, a class C felony sex offense as defined in RCW 9.94A.030, or a class C felony with a sexual motivation allegation, the defense may move for dismissal of the charges without prejudice if the defendant is currently subject to a civil commitment order under chapter 71.05 RCW. The court shall grant the defense motion upon confirmation of an available treatment plan under chapter 71.05 RCW.

(4) Individuals who are referred to a diversion program described in this section shall have a forensic navigator assigned to assist them for up to six months while engaging in the services described in the diversion program.

(5) Forensic navigators shall collaborate with available Trueblood settlement diversion programs if they are accessible in the geographic location where criminal charges are currently filed.

Sec. 7. RCW 10.77.084 and 2023 c 453 s 6 are each amended to read as follows:

(1)(a) If at any time during the pendency of an action and prior to judgment the court finds, following a report as provided in RCW 10.77.060, a defendant is ((incompetent))unable to proceed, the court shall order the proceedings against the defendant be stayed except as provided in subsection (4) of this section. Beginning October 1, 2023, if the defendant is charged with a serious traffic offense under RCW 9.94A.030, or a felony version of a serious traffic offense, the court may order the clerk to transmit an order to the department of licensing for revocation of the defendant's driver's license for a period of one year.

(b) The court may order a defendant who has been found to be ((incompetent))unable to proceed to undergo ((competency)) restoration treatment at a facility designated by the department if the defendant is eligible under RCW 10.77.086 or 10.77.088. At the end of each ((competency)) restoration period or at any time a professional person determines ((competency))ability to proceed has been, or is unlikely to be, restored, the defendant shall be returned to court for a hearing, except that if the opinion of the professional person is that the defendant remains ((incompetent))unable to proceed and the hearing is held before the expiration of the current ((competency)) restoration period, the parties may agree to waive the defendant's presence, to remote participation by the defendant at a hearing, or to presentation of an agreed order in lieu of a hearing. The facility shall promptly notify the court and all parties of the date on which the ((competency)) restoration period commences and expires so that a timely hearing date may be scheduled.

(c) If, following notice and hearing or entry of an agreed order under (b) of this subsection, the court finds that ((competency))ability to proceed has been restored, the court shall lift the stay entered under (a) of this subsection. If the court finds that ((competency))ability to proceed has not been restored, the court shall dismiss the proceedings without prejudice, except that the court may order a further period of ((competency)) restoration treatment if it finds that further treatment within the time limits established by RCW 10.77.086 or 10.77.088 is likely to restore ((competency))ability to proceed, and a further period of treatment is allowed under RCW 10.77.086 or 10.77.088.

(d) If at any time during the proceeding the court finds, following notice and hearing, a defendant is not likely to regain ((competency))ability to proceed, the court shall dismiss the proceedings without prejudice and refer the defendant for civil commitment evaluation or proceedings if appropriate under RCW 10.77.065, 10.77.086, or 10.77.088.

(e) Beginning October 1, 2023, if the court issues an order directing revocation of the defendant's driver's license under (a) of this subsection, and the court subsequently finds that the defendant's ((competency))ability to proceed has been restored, the court shall order the clerk to transmit an order to the department of licensing for reinstatement of the defendant's driver's license. The court may direct the clerk to transmit an order reinstating the defendant's driver's license before the end of one year for good cause upon the petition of the defendant.

(2) If the defendant is referred for evaluation by a designated crisis responder under this chapter, the designated crisis responder shall provide prompt written notification of the results of the evaluation and whether the person was detained. The notification shall be provided to the court in which the criminal action was pending, the prosecutor, the defense attorney in the criminal action, and the facility that evaluated the defendant for ((competency))ability to proceed.

(3) The fact that the defendant is unfit to proceed does not preclude any pretrial proceedings which do not require the personal participation of the defendant.

(4) A defendant receiving medication for either physical or mental problems shall not be prohibited from standing trial, if the medication either enables the defendant to understand the proceedings against him or her and to assist in his or her own defense, or does not disable him or her from so understanding and assisting in his or her own defense.

(5) At or before the conclusion of any commitment period provided for by this section, the facility providing evaluation and treatment shall provide to the court a written report of evaluation which meets the requirements of RCW 10.77.060(3). For defendants charged with a felony, the report following the second ((competency)) restoration period or first ((competency)) restoration period if the defendant's ((incompetence))inability to proceed is determined to be solely due to a developmental disability or the evaluator concludes that the defendant is not likely to regain ((competency))ability to proceed must include an assessment of the defendant's future dangerousness which is evidence-based regarding predictive validity.

Sec. 8. RCW 10.77.0845 and 2012 c 256 s 7 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) A defendant found ((incompetent))unable to proceed by the court under RCW 10.77.084 must be evaluated at the direction of the secretary and a determination made whether the defendant is an individual with a developmental disability. Such evaluation and determination must be accomplished as soon as possible following the court's placement of the defendant in the custody of the secretary.

(2) When appropriate, and subject to available funds, if the defendant is determined to be an individual with a developmental disability, he or she may be placed in a program specifically reserved for the treatment and training of persons with developmental disabilities where the defendant has the right to habilitation according to an individualized service plan specifically developed for the particular needs of the defendant. A copy of the evaluation must be sent to the program.

(a) The program must be separate from programs serving persons involved in any other treatment or habilitation program.

(b) The program must be appropriately secure under the circumstances and must be administered by developmental disabilities professionals who shall direct the habilitation efforts.

(c) The program must provide an environment affording security appropriate with the charged criminal behavior and necessary to protect the public safety.

(3) The department may limit admissions of such persons to this specialized program in order to ensure that expenditures for services do not exceed amounts appropriated by the legislature and allocated by the department for such services.

(4) The department may establish admission priorities in the event that the number of eligible persons exceeds the limits set by the department.

Sec. 9. RCW 10.77.086 and 2023 c 453 s 8 and 2023 c 433 s 18 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, if the defendant is charged with a felony and determined to be ((incompetent))unable to proceed, until he or she has regained the ((competency))ability to proceed necessary to understand the proceedings against him or her and assist in his or her own defense, but in any event for a period of no longer than 90 days, the court shall commit the defendant to the custody of the secretary for inpatient ((competency)) restoration, or may alternatively order the defendant to receive outpatient ((competency)) restoration based on a recommendation from a forensic navigator and input from the parties.

(b) For a defendant who is determined to be ((incompetent))unable to proceed and whose highest charge is a class C felony other than assault in the third degree under RCW 9A.36.031(1) (d) or (f), felony physical control of a vehicle under RCW 46.61.504(6), felony hit and run resulting in injury under RCW 46.52.020(4)(b), a hate crime offense under RCW 9A.36.080, a class C felony with a domestic violence designation, a class C felony sex offense as defined in RCW 9.94A.030, or a class C felony with a sexual motivation allegation, the court shall first consider all available and appropriate alternatives to inpatient ((competency)) restoration. The court shall dismiss the proceedings without prejudice upon agreement of the parties if the forensic navigator has found an appropriate and available diversion program willing to accept the defendant.

(2)(a) To be eligible for an order for outpatient ((competency)) restoration, a defendant must be clinically appropriate and be willing to:

(i) Adhere to medications or receive prescribed intramuscular medication;

(ii) Abstain from alcohol and unprescribed drugs; and

(iii) Comply with urinalysis or breathalyzer monitoring if needed.

(b) If the court orders inpatient ((competency)) restoration, the department shall place the defendant in an appropriate facility of the department for ((competency)) restoration.

(c) If the court orders outpatient ((competency)) restoration, the court shall modify conditions of release as needed to authorize the department to place the person in approved housing, which may include access to supported housing, affiliated with a contracted outpatient ((competency)) restoration program. The department, in conjunction with the health care authority, must establish rules for conditions of participation in the outpatient ((competency)) restoration program, which must include the defendant being subject to medication management. The court may order regular urinalysis testing. The outpatient ((competency)) restoration program shall monitor the defendant during the defendant's placement in the program and report any noncompliance or significant changes with respect to the defendant to the department and, if applicable, the forensic navigator.

(d) If a defendant fails to comply with the restrictions of the outpatient restoration program such that restoration is no longer appropriate in that setting or the defendant is no longer clinically appropriate for outpatient ((competency)) restoration, the director of the outpatient ((competency)) restoration program shall notify the authority and the department of the need to terminate the outpatient ((competency)) restoration placement and intent to request placement for the defendant in an appropriate facility of the department for inpatient ((competency)) restoration. The outpatient ((competency)) restoration program shall coordinate with the authority, the department, and any law enforcement personnel under (d)(i) of this subsection to ensure that the time period between termination and admission into the inpatient facility is as minimal as possible. The time period for inpatient ((competency)) restoration shall be reduced by the time period spent in active treatment within the outpatient ((competency)) restoration program, excluding time periods in which the defendant was absent from the program and all time from notice of termination of the outpatient ((competency)) restoration period through the defendant's admission to the facility. The department shall obtain a placement for the defendant within seven days of the notice of intent to terminate the outpatient ((competency)) restoration placement.

(i) The department may authorize a peace officer to detain the defendant into emergency custody for transport to the designated inpatient ((competency)) restoration facility. If medical clearance is required by the designated ((competency)) restoration facility before admission, the peace officer must transport the defendant to a crisis stabilization unit, evaluation and treatment facility, or emergency department of a local hospital for medical clearance once a bed is available at the designated inpatient ((competency)) restoration facility. The signed outpatient ((competency)) restoration order of the court shall serve as authority for the detention of the defendant under this subsection. This subsection does not preclude voluntary transportation of the defendant to a facility for inpatient ((competency)) restoration or for medical clearance, or authorize admission of the defendant into jail.

(ii) The department shall notify the court and parties of the defendant's admission for inpatient ((competency)) restoration before the close of the next judicial day. The court shall schedule a hearing within five days to review the conditions of release of the defendant and anticipated release from treatment and issue appropriate orders.

(e) The court may not issue an order for outpatient ((competency)) restoration unless the department certifies that there is an available appropriate outpatient ((competency)) restoration program that has adequate space for the person at the time the order is issued or the court places the defendant under the guidance and control of a professional person identified in the court order.

(3) For a defendant whose highest charge is a class C felony, or a class B felony that is not classified as violent under RCW 9.94A.030, the maximum time allowed for the initial ((competency)) restoration period is 45 days if the defendant is referred for inpatient ((competency)) restoration, or 90 days if the defendant is referred for outpatient ((competency)) restoration, provided that if the outpatient ((competency)) restoration placement is terminated and the defendant is subsequently admitted to an inpatient facility, the period of inpatient treatment during the first ((competency)) restoration period under this subsection shall not exceed 45 days.

(4) When any defendant whose highest charge is a class C felony other than assault in the third degree under RCW 9A.36.031(1) (d) or (f), felony physical control of a vehicle under RCW 46.61.504(6), felony hit and run resulting in injury under RCW 46.52.020(4)(b), a hate crime offense under RCW 9A.36.080, a class C felony with a domestic violence designation, a class C felony sex offense as defined in RCW 9.94A.030, or a class C felony with a sexual motivation allegation is admitted for inpatient ((competency)) restoration with an accompanying court order for involuntary medication under RCW 10.77.092, and the defendant is found not ((competent to stand))able to proceed to trial following that period of ((competency)) restoration, the court shall dismiss the charges pursuant to subsection (7) of this section.

(5) If the court determines or the parties agree before the initial ((competency)) restoration period or at any subsequent stage of the proceedings that the defendant is unlikely to regain ((competency))ability to proceed, the court may dismiss the charges without prejudice without ordering the defendant to undergo an initial or further period of ((competency)) restoration treatment, in which case the court shall order that the defendant be referred for evaluation for civil commitment in the manner provided in subsection (7) of this section.

(6) On or before expiration of the initial ((competency)) restoration period the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the defendant is now ((competent to stand))able to proceed to trial. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant is ((incompetent to stand))unable to proceed to trial, the court may order an extension of the ((competency)) restoration period for an additional period of 90 days, but the court must at the same time set a date for a new hearing to determine the defendant's ((competency to stand))ability to proceed to trial before the expiration of this second restoration period. The defendant, the defendant's attorney, and the prosecutor have the right to demand that the hearing be before a jury. No extension shall be ordered for a second or third ((competency)) restoration period if the defendant is ineligible for a subsequent ((competency)) restoration period under subsection (4) of this section or the defendant's ((incompetence))inability to proceed has been determined by the secretary to be solely the result of an intellectual or developmental disability, dementia, or traumatic brain injury which is such that ((competence))ability to proceed is not reasonably likely to be regained during an extension.

(7)(a) Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, at the hearing upon the expiration of the second ((competency)) restoration period, or at the end of the first ((competency)) restoration period if the defendant is ineligible for a second or third ((competency)) restoration period under subsection (3) or (6) of this section, if the jury or court finds that the defendant is ((incompetent to stand trial))unable to proceed, the court shall dismiss the charges without prejudice and order the defendant to be committed to the department for placement in a facility operated or contracted by the department for up to 120 hours if the defendant has not undergone ((competency)) restoration services or has engaged in outpatient ((competency)) restoration services, and up to 72 hours if the defendant engaged in inpatient ((competency)) restoration services starting from admission to the facility, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, for evaluation for the purpose of filing a civil commitment petition under chapter 71.05 RCW. If at the time the order to dismiss the charges without prejudice is entered by the court the defendant is already in a facility operated or contracted by the department, the 72-hour or 120-hour period shall instead begin upon department receipt of the court order.

(b) The court shall not dismiss the charges if the defendant is eligible for a second or third ((competency)) restoration period under subsection (6) of this section and the court or jury finds that: (i) The defendant (A) is a substantial danger to other persons; or (B) presents a substantial likelihood of committing criminal acts jeopardizing public safety or security; and (ii) there is a substantial probability that the defendant will regain ((competency))ability to proceed within a reasonable period of time. If the court or jury makes such a finding, the court may extend the period of commitment for up to an additional six months.

(8) Any period of ((competency)) restoration treatment under this section includes only the time the defendant is actually at the facility or is actively participating in an outpatient ((competency)) restoration program and is in addition to reasonable time for transport to or from the facility.

Sec. 10. RCW 10.77.074 and 2023 c 453 s 5 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Subject to the limitations described in subsection (2) of this section, a court may appoint an impartial forensic navigator employed by or contracted by the department to assist individuals who have been referred for ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation and shall appoint a forensic navigator in circumstances described under RCW 10.77.072.

(2) A forensic navigator must assist the individual to access services related to diversion and community outpatient ((competency)) restoration. The forensic navigator must assist the individual, prosecuting attorney, defense attorney, and the court to understand the options available to the individual and be accountable as an officer of the court for faithful execution of the responsibilities outlined in this section.

(3) The duties of the forensic navigator include, but are not limited to, the following:

(a) To collect relevant information about the individual, including behavioral health services and supports available to the individual that might support placement in outpatient restoration, diversion, or some combination of these;

(b) To meet with, interview, and observe the individual;

(d) To present information to the court in order to assist the court in understanding the treatment options available to the individual to support the entry of orders for diversion from the forensic mental health system or for community outpatient ((competency)) restoration, to facilitate that transition;

(e) To provide regular updates to the court and parties of the status of the individual's participation in diversion or outpatient services and be responsive to inquiries by the parties about treatment status;

(f) When the individual is ordered to receive community outpatient restoration, to provide services to the individual including:

(i) Assisting the individual with attending appointments and classes relating to outpatient ((competency)) restoration;

(ii) Coordinating access to housing for the individual;

(iii) Meeting with the individual on a regular basis;

(iv) Providing information to the court concerning the individual's progress and compliance with court-ordered conditions of release, which may include appearing at court hearings to provide information to the court;

(v) Coordinating the individual's access to community case management services and mental health services;

(vi) Assisting the individual with obtaining prescribed medication and encouraging adherence with prescribed medication;

(vii) Assessing the individual for appropriateness for assisted outpatient treatment under chapter 71.05 RCW and coordinating the initiation of an assisted outpatient treatment order if appropriate;

(viii) Planning for a coordinated transition of the individual to a case manager in the community behavioral health system;

(ix) Attempting to follow-up with the individual to check whether the meeting with a community-based case manager took place;

(x) When the individual is a high utilizer, attempting to connect the individual with high utilizer services; and

(xi) Attempting to check up on the individual at least once per month for up to sixty days after coordinated transition to community behavioral health services, without duplicating the services of the community-based case manager;

(g) If the individual is an American Indian or Alaska Native who receives medical, behavioral health, housing, or other supportive services from a tribe within this state, to notify and coordinate with the tribe and Indian health care provider. Notification shall be made in person or by telephonic or electronic communication to the tribal contact listed in the authority's tribal crisis coordination plan as soon as possible.

(4) Forensic navigators may submit recommendations to the court regarding treatment and restoration options for the individual, which the court may consider and weigh in conjunction with the recommendations of all of the parties.

(5) Forensic navigators shall be deemed officers of the court for the purpose of immunity from civil liability.

(6) The signed order for ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation from the court shall serve as authority for the forensic navigator to be given access to all records held by a behavioral health, educational, or law enforcement agency or a correctional facility that relates to an individual. Information that is protected by state or federal law, including health information, shall not be entered into the court record without the consent of the individual or their defense attorney.

(7) Admissions made by the individual in the course of receiving services from the forensic navigator may not be used against the individual in the prosecution's case in chief.

(8) A court may not issue an order appointing a forensic navigator unless the department certifies that there is adequate forensic navigator capacity to provide these services at the time the order is issued.

Sec. 11. RCW 10.77.075 and 2015 1st sp.s. c 7 s 2 are each amended to read as follows:

Within twenty-four hours of the signing of a court order requesting the secretary to provide ((a competency))an ability to proceed evaluation or ((competency)) restoration treatment:

(1) The clerk of the court shall provide the court order and the charging documents, including the request for bail and certification of probable cause, to the state hospital. If the order is for ((competency)) restoration treatment and the ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation was provided by a qualified expert or professional person who was not designated by the secretary, the clerk shall also provide the state hospital with a copy of all previous court orders related to ((competency))ability to proceed or criminal insanity and a copy of any of the evaluation reports;

(2) The prosecuting attorney shall provide the discovery packet, including a statement of the defendant's criminal history, to the state hospital; and

(3) If the court order requires transportation of the defendant to a state hospital, the jail administrator shall provide the defendant's medical clearance information to the state hospital admission staff.

Sec. 12. RCW 10.77.078 and 2015 1st sp.s. c 7 s 3 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) A city or county jail shall transport a defendant to a state hospital or other secure facility designated by the department within one day of receipt of an offer of admission of the defendant for ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation or restoration services.

(2) City and county jails must cooperate with ((competency))ability to proceed evaluators and the department to arrange for ((competency))ability to proceed evaluators to have reasonable, timely, and appropriate access to defendants for the purpose of performing evaluations under this chapter to accommodate the seven-day performance target for completing ((competency))ability to proceed evaluations for defendants in custody.

Sec. 13. RCW 10.77.088 and 2023 c 453 s 9 and 2023 c 433 s 19 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

(1) If the defendant is charged with a nonfelony crime which is a serious offense as identified in RCW 10.77.092 and found by the court to be ((not competent))unable to proceed, the court shall first consider all available and appropriate alternatives to inpatient ((competency)) restoration. If the parties agree that there is an appropriate diversion program available to accept the defendant, the court shall dismiss the proceedings without prejudice and refer the defendant to the recommended diversion program. If the parties do not agree that there is an appropriate diversion program available to accept the defendant, then the court:

(a) Shall dismiss the proceedings without prejudice and detain the defendant pursuant to subsection (6) of this section, unless the prosecutor objects to the dismissal and provides notice of a motion for an order for ((competency)) restoration treatment, in which case the court shall schedule a hearing within seven days.

(b) At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney must establish that there is a compelling state interest to order ((competency)) restoration treatment for the defendant. The court may consider prior criminal history, prior history in treatment, prior history of violence, the quality and severity of the pending charges, any history that suggests whether ((competency)) restoration treatment is likely to be successful, in addition to the factors listed under RCW 10.77.092. If the defendant is subject to an order under chapter 71.05 RCW or proceedings under chapter 71.05 RCW have been initiated, there is a rebuttable presumption that there is no compelling state interest in ordering ((competency)) restoration treatment. If the prosecuting attorney proves by a preponderance of the evidence that there is a compelling state interest in ordering ((competency)) restoration treatment, then the court shall issue an order in accordance with subsection (2) of this section.

(2)(a) If a court finds pursuant to subsection (1)(b) of this section that there is a compelling state interest in pursuing ((competency)) restoration treatment, the court shall order the defendant to receive outpatient ((competency)) restoration consistent with the recommendation of the forensic navigator, unless the court finds that an order for outpatient ((competency)) restoration is inappropriate considering the health and safety of the defendant and risks to public safety.

(b) To be eligible for an order for outpatient ((competency)) restoration, a defendant must be willing to:

(i) Adhere to medications or receive prescribed intramuscular medication;

(ii) Abstain from alcohol and unprescribed drugs; and

(iii) Comply with urinalysis or breathalyzer monitoring if needed.

(c) If the court orders inpatient ((competency)) restoration, the department shall place the defendant in an appropriate facility of the department for ((competency)) restoration under subsection (3) of this section.

(d) If the court orders outpatient ((competency)) restoration, the court shall modify conditions of release as needed to authorize the department to place the person in approved housing, which may include access to supported housing, affiliated with a contracted outpatient ((competency)) restoration program. The department, in conjunction with the health care authority, must establish rules for conditions of participation in the outpatient ((competency)) restoration program, which must include the defendant being subject to medication management. The court may order regular urinalysis testing. The outpatient ((competency)) restoration program shall monitor the defendant during the defendant's placement in the program and report any noncompliance or significant changes with respect to the defendant to the department and, if applicable, the forensic navigator.

(e) If a defendant fails to comply with the restrictions of the outpatient ((competency)) restoration program such that restoration is no longer appropriate in that setting or the defendant is no longer clinically appropriate for outpatient ((competency)) restoration, the director of the outpatient ((competency)) restoration program shall notify the authority and the department of the need to terminate the outpatient ((competency)) restoration placement and intent to request placement for the defendant in an appropriate facility of the department for inpatient ((competency)) restoration. The outpatient ((competency)) restoration program shall coordinate with the authority, the department, and any law enforcement personnel under (e)(i) of this subsection to ensure that the time period between termination and admission into the inpatient facility is as minimal as possible. The time period for inpatient ((competency)) restoration shall be reduced by the time period spent in active treatment within the outpatient ((competency)) restoration program, excluding time periods in which the defendant was absent from the program and all time from notice of termination of the outpatient ((competency)) restoration period through the defendant's admission to the facility. The department shall obtain a placement for the defendant within seven days of the notice of intent to terminate the outpatient ((competency)) restoration placement.

(f) The court may not issue an order for outpatient ((competency)) restoration unless the department certifies that there is an available appropriate outpatient restoration program that has adequate space for the person at the time the order is issued or the court places the defendant under the guidance and control of a professional person identified in the court order.

(g) If the court does not order the defendant to receive outpatient ((competency)) restoration under (a) of this subsection, the court shall commit the defendant to the department for placement in a facility operated or contracted by the department for inpatient ((competency)) restoration.

(3) The placement under subsection (2) of this section shall not exceed 29 days if the defendant is ordered to receive inpatient ((competency)) restoration, and shall not exceed 90 days if the defendant is ordered to receive outpatient ((competency)) restoration. The court may order any combination of this subsection, but the total period of inpatient ((competency)) restoration may not exceed 29 days.

(4) Beginning October 1, 2023, if the defendant is charged with a serious traffic offense under RCW 9.94A.030, the court may order the clerk to transmit an order to the department of licensing for revocation of the defendant's driver's license for a period of one year. The court shall direct the clerk to transmit an order to the department of licensing reinstating the defendant's driver's license if the ((defendant))defendant's ability to proceed is subsequently restored ((to competency)), and may do so at any time before the end of one year for good cause upon the petition of the defendant.

(5) If the court has determined or the parties agree that the defendant is unlikely to regain ((competency))ability to proceed, the court may dismiss the charges without prejudice without ordering the defendant to undergo ((competency)) restoration treatment, in which case the court shall order that the defendant be referred for evaluation for civil commitment in the manner provided in subsection (6) of this section.

(6)(a) If the proceedings are dismissed under RCW 10.77.084 and the defendant was on conditional release at the time of dismissal, the court shall order the designated crisis responder within that county to evaluate the defendant pursuant to chapter 71.05 RCW. The evaluation may be conducted in any location chosen by the professional.

(b) If the defendant was in custody and not on conditional release at the time of dismissal, the defendant shall be detained and sent to an evaluation and treatment facility for up to 120 hours if the defendant has not undergone ((competency)) restoration services or has engaged in outpatient ((competency)) restoration services and up to 72 hours if the defendant engaged in inpatient ((competency)) restoration services, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, for evaluation for purposes of filing a petition under chapter 71.05 RCW. The 120-hour or 72-hour period shall commence upon the next nonholiday weekday following the court order and shall run to the end of the last nonholiday weekday within the 120-hour or 72-hour period.

(7) If the defendant is charged with a nonfelony crime that is not a serious offense as defined in RCW 10.77.092 and found by the court to be ((not competent))unable to proceed, the court may stay or dismiss proceedings and detain the defendant for sufficient time to allow the designated crisis responder to evaluate the defendant and consider initial detention proceedings under chapter 71.05 RCW. The court must give notice to all parties at least 24 hours before the dismissal of any proceeding under this subsection, and provide an opportunity for a hearing on whether to dismiss the proceedings.

(8) If at any time the court dismisses charges under subsections (1) through (7) of this section, the court shall make a finding as to whether the defendant has a history of one or more violent acts. If the court so finds, the defendant is barred from the possession of firearms until a court restores his or her right to possess a firearm under RCW 9.41.047. The court shall state to the defendant and provide written notice that the defendant is barred from the possession of firearms and that the prohibition remains in effect until a court restores his or her right to possess a firearm under RCW 9.41.047.

(9) Any period of ((competency)) restoration treatment under this section includes only the time the defendant is actually at the facility or is actively participating in an outpatient ((competency)) restoration program and is in addition to reasonable time for transport to or from the facility.

Sec. 14. RCW 10.77.0885 and 2023 c 453 s 16 are each amended to read as follows:

An outpatient ((competency)) restoration program must include access to a prescriber.

Sec. 15. RCW 10.77.089 and 2022 c 288 s 8 are each amended to read as follows:

The authority shall report annually to the governor and relevant committees of the legislature, beginning November 1, 2022, and shall make the report public, describing:

(1) How many individuals are being served by outpatient ((competency)) restoration programs and in what locations;

(2) The length of stay of individuals in outpatient ((competency)) restoration programs;

(3) The number of individuals who are revoked from an outpatient ((competency)) restoration program into inpatient treatment, and the outcomes of other individuals, if any, whose participation in an outpatient ((competency)) restoration program were terminated before the completion of the program; and

(4) For individuals who were revoked from an outpatient ((competency)) restoration program into an inpatient ((competency)) restoration program, how many days the individuals spent in outpatient ((competency)) restoration treatment and inpatient ((competency)) restoration treatment, and whether the restoration programs resulted in a finding of ((competent to stand))able to proceed to trial or another outcome.

Sec. 16. RCW 10.77.092 and 2023 c 453 s 11 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) For purposes of determining whether a court may authorize involuntary medication for the purpose of ((competency)) restoration treatment pursuant to RCW 10.77.084 and for maintaining the level of restoration in the jail following the restoration period, a pending charge involving any one or more of the following crimes is a serious offense per se in the context of ((competency)) restoration treatment:

(a) Any violent offense, sex offense, serious traffic offense, and most serious offense, as those terms are defined in RCW 9.94A.030;

(b) Any offense, except nonfelony counterfeiting offenses, included in crimes against persons in RCW 9.94A.411;

(d) Any offense listed as domestic violence in RCW 10.99.020;

(e) Any offense listed as a harassment offense in chapter 9A.46 RCW, except for criminal trespass in the first or second degree;

(f) Any violation of chapter 69.50 RCW that is a class B felony; or

(g) Any city or county ordinance or statute that is equivalent to an offense referenced in this subsection.

(2) Any time a petition is filed seeking a court order authorizing the involuntary medication for purposes of ((competency)) restoration treatment pursuant to RCW 10.77.084, the petition must also seek authorization to continue involuntary medication for purposes of maintaining the level of restoration in the jail or juvenile detention facility following the restoration period.

(3)(a) In a particular case, a court may determine that a pending charge not otherwise defined as serious by state or federal law or by a city or county ordinance is, nevertheless, a serious offense within the context of ((competency)) restoration treatment when the conduct in the charged offense falls within the standards established in (b) of this subsection.

(b) To determine that the particular case is a serious offense within the context of ((competency)) restoration treatment, the court must consider the following factors and determine that one or more of the following factors creates a situation in which the offense is serious:

(i) The charge includes an allegation that the defendant actually inflicted bodily or emotional harm on another person or that the defendant created a reasonable apprehension of bodily or emotional harm to another;

(ii) The extent of the impact of the alleged offense on the basic human need for security of the citizens within the jurisdiction;

(iii) The number and nature of related charges pending against the defendant;

(iv) The length of potential confinement if the defendant is convicted; and

(v) The number of potential and actual victims or persons impacted by the defendant's alleged acts.

Sec. 17. RCW 10.77.093 and 2004 c 157 s 4 are each amended to read as follows:

When the court must make a determination whether to order involuntary medications for the purpose of ((competency)) restoration or for maintenance of ((competency))ability to proceed, the court shall inquire, and shall be told, and to the extent that the prosecutor or defense attorney is aware, whether the defendant is the subject of a pending civil commitment proceeding or has been ordered into involuntary treatment pursuant to a civil commitment proceeding.

Sec. 18. RCW 10.77.0942 and 2023 c 453 s 12 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) When an individual has a prescription for an antipsychotic, antidepressant, antiepileptic, or other drug prescribed to the individual to treat a serious mental illness by a state hospital or other state facility or a behavioral health agency or other certified medical provider, and the individual is medically stable on the drug, a jail or juvenile detention facility shall continue prescribing the prescribed drug and may not require the substitution of a different drug in a given therapeutic class, except under the following circumstances:

(a) The substitution is for a generic version of a name brand drug and the generic version is chemically identical to the name brand drug; or

(b) The drug cannot be prescribed for reasons of drug recall or removal from the market, or medical evidence indicating no therapeutic effect of the drug.

(2) This section includes but is not limited to situations in which the individual returns to a jail or juvenile detention facility directly after undergoing treatment at a state hospital, behavioral health agency, outpatient ((competency)) restoration program, or prison.

(3) The department shall establish a program to reimburse jails and juvenile detention facilities for the costs of any drugs the jail or juvenile detention facility does not otherwise have available and must continue prescribing under this section.

Sec. 19. RCW 10.77.095 and 1998 c 297 s 28 are each amended to read as follows:

The legislature finds that among those persons who endanger the safety of others by committing crimes are a small number of persons with developmental disabilities. While their conduct is not typical of the vast majority of persons with developmental disabilities who are responsible citizens, for their own welfare and for the safety of others the state may need to exercise control over those few dangerous individuals who are ((developmentally disabled))individuals with developmental disabilities, have been charged with crimes that involve a threat to public safety or security, and have been found either ((incompetent to stand))unable to proceed to trial or not guilty by reason of insanity. The legislature finds, however, that the use of civil commitment procedures under chapter 71.05 RCW to effect state control over dangerous ((developmentally disabled persons))individuals with developmental disabilities has resulted in their commitment to institutions for ((the mentally ill))individuals with mental illness. The legislature finds that existing programs in mental institutions may be inappropriate for persons who are ((developmentally disabled))individuals with developmental disabilities because the services provided in mental institutions are oriented to persons with mental illness, a condition not necessarily associated with developmental disabilities. Therefore, the legislature believes that, where appropriate, and subject to available funds, persons with developmental disabilities who have been charged with crimes that involve a threat to public safety or security and have been found ((incompetent to stand))unable to proceed to trial or not guilty by reason of insanity should receive state services addressing their needs, that such services must be provided in conformance with an individual habilitation plan, and that their initial treatment should be separate and discrete from treatment for persons involved in any other treatment or habilitation program in a manner consistent with the needs of public safety.

Sec. 20. RCW 10.77.145 and 2010 c 262 s 1 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) No person committed to the custody of the department for the determination of ((competency to stand))ability to proceed to trial under RCW 10.77.060, the restoration ((of competency for trial))treatment under RCW 10.77.084, 10.77.086, or 10.77.088, or following an acquittal by reason of insanity shall be authorized to leave the facility where the person is confined, except in the following circumstances:

(a) In accordance with conditional release or furlough authorized by a court;

(b) For necessary medical or legal proceedings not available in the facility where the person is confined;

(d) For attendance at the funeral of a member of the person's immediate family.

(2) Unless ordered otherwise by a court, no leave under subsection (1) of this section shall be authorized unless the person who is the subject of the authorization is escorted by a person approved by the secretary. During the authorized leave, the person approved by the secretary must be in visual or auditory contact at all times with the person on authorized leave.

(3) Prior to the authorization of any leave under subsection (1) of this section, the secretary must give notification to any county or city law enforcement agency having jurisdiction in the location of the leave destination.

Sec. 21. RCW 10.77.200 and 2023 c 120 s 12 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Upon application by the committed or conditionally released person, the secretary shall determine whether or not reasonable grounds exist for release. In making this determination, the secretary may consider the reports filed under RCW 10.77.060, 10.77.110, 10.77.140, and 10.77.160, and other reports and evaluations provided by professionals familiar with the case. If the secretary approves the release he or she then shall authorize the person to petition the court.

(2) In instances in which persons have not made application for release, but the secretary believes, after consideration of the reports filed under RCW 10.77.060, 10.77.110, 10.77.140, and 10.77.160, and other reports and evaluations provided by professionals familiar with the case, that reasonable grounds exist for release, the secretary may petition the court. If the secretary petitions the court for release under this subsection, notice of the petition must be provided to the person who is the subject of the petition and to his or her attorney.

(3) The petition shall be served upon the court and the prosecuting attorney. The court, upon receipt of the petition for release, shall within 45 days order a hearing. Continuance of the hearing date shall only be allowed for good cause shown. The prosecuting attorney shall represent the state, and shall have the right to have the person who is the subject of the petition examined by an expert or professional person of the prosecuting attorney's choice. If the secretary is the petitioner, the attorney general shall represent the secretary. If the person who is the subject of the petition is indigent, and the person so requests, the court shall assist the person in obtaining a qualified expert or professional person to examine him or her. An expert or professional person obtained by an indigent person who was committed to state psychiatric care following acquittal by reason of insanity shall be compensated out of funds of the office of public defense as provided in policies and procedures under chapter 2.70 RCW, in a manner consistent with the rules of professional conduct and the standards for indigent defense. If the person who is the subject of the petition has a developmental disability, the examination shall be performed by a developmental disabilities professional. The hearing shall be before a jury if demanded by either the petitioner or the prosecuting attorney. The burden of proof shall be upon the petitioner to show by a preponderance of the evidence that the person who is the subject of the petition no longer presents, as a result of a mental ((disease or defect))disorder, a substantial danger to other persons, or a substantial likelihood of committing criminal acts jeopardizing public safety or security, unless kept under further control by the court or other persons or institutions. If the person who is the subject of the petition will be transferred to a state correctional institution or facility upon release to serve a sentence for any class A felony, the petitioner must show that the person's mental ((disease or defect))disorder is manageable within a state correctional institution or facility, but must not be required to prove that the person does not present either a substantial danger to other persons, or a substantial likelihood of committing criminal acts jeopardizing public safety or security, if released.

(4) For purposes of this section, a person affected by a mental ((disease or defect))disorder in a state of remission is considered to have a mental ((disease or defect))disorder requiring supervision when the disease may, with reasonable medical probability, occasionally become active and, when active, render the person a danger to others. Upon a finding that the person who is the subject of the petition has a mental ((disease or defect))disorder in a state of remission under this subsection, the court may deny release, or place or continue such a person on conditional release.

(5) Nothing contained in this chapter shall prohibit the patient from petitioning the court for release or conditional release from the institution in which he or she is committed. The petition shall be served upon the court, the prosecuting attorney, and the secretary. Upon receipt of such petition, the secretary shall develop a recommendation as provided in subsection (1) of this section and provide the secretary's recommendation to all parties and the court. The issue to be determined on such proceeding is whether the patient, as a result of a mental ((disease or defect))disorder, is a substantial danger to other persons, or presents a substantial likelihood of committing criminal acts jeopardizing public safety or security, unless kept under further control by the court or other persons or institutions.

(6) Nothing contained in this chapter shall prohibit the committed person from petitioning for release by writ of habeas corpus.

Sec. 22. RCW 10.77.202 and 2023 c 453 s 13 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Following ((a competency))an ability to proceed evaluation under RCW 10.77.060, individuals who are found ((not competent to stand trial))unable to proceed and not restorable due to an intellectual or developmental disability, dementia, or traumatic brain injury, shall not be referred for ((competency)) restoration services.

(2) The department shall develop a process for connecting individuals who have been found ((not competent to stand))unable to proceed to trial due to an intellectual or developmental disability, dementia, or traumatic brain injury to available wraparound services and supports in community-based settings, which may include residential supports. The process shall include provisions for individuals who are current clients of the department's developmental disabilities administration or aging and long-term support administration and for individuals who are not current clients of the department.

(a) For current clients of the developmental disabilities administration and aging and long-term support administration, the department's assigned case manager shall:

(i) Coordinate with the individual's services providers to determine if the individual can return to the same or like services, or determine appropriate new community-based services. This shall include updating the individual's service plan and identifying and coordinating potential funding for any additional supports to stabilize the individual in community-based settings funded by the developmental disabilities administration or aging and long-term support administration so that the individual does not lose existing services, including submitting any exceptions to rule for additional services;

(ii) Conduct a current service eligibility assessment and send referral packets to all community-based service providers for services for which the individual is eligible; and

(iii) Connect with the individual's assigned forensic navigator and determine if the individual is eligible for any diversion, supportive housing, or case management programs as a Trueblood class member, and assist the individual to access these services.

(b) For individuals who have not established eligibility for the department's support services, the department shall:

(i) Conduct an eligibility determination for services and send referral packets to service providers for all relevant community-based services for which the individual is eligible. This process must include identifying and coordinating funding for any additional supports that are needed to stabilize the individual in any community-based setting funded by the developmental disabilities administration or aging and long-term support administration, including submitting any necessary exceptions to rule for additional services; and

(ii) Connect with the individual's assigned forensic navigator and determine if the individual is eligible for any diversion, supportive housing, or case management programs as a Trueblood class member, if additional specialized services are available to supplement diversion program services, and assist the individual to access these services.

(3) The department shall offer to transition the individual in services either directly from the jail or as soon thereafter as may be practicable, without maintaining the individual at an inpatient facility for longer than is clinically necessary. Nothing in this subsection prohibits the department from returning the individual to their home or to another less restrictive setting if such setting is appropriate, which may include provision of supportive services to help the person maintain stability. The individual is not required to accept developmental disabilities administration, aging and long-term support administration, or other diversionary services as a condition of having the individual's criminal case dismissed without prejudice, provided the individual meets the criteria of subsection (1) of this section.

(4) Subject to the availability of funds appropriated for this specific purpose, the department shall develop a program for individuals who have been involved with the criminal justice system and who have been found under RCW 10.77.084 as ((incompetent to stand trial))unable to proceed due to an intellectual or developmental disability, traumatic brain injury, or dementia and who do not meet criteria under other programs in this section. The program must involve wraparound services and housing supports appropriate to the needs of the individual. It is sufficient to meet the criteria for participation in this program if the individual has recently been the subject of criminal charges and was found ((incompetent to stand trial))unable to proceed due to an intellectual or developmental disability, traumatic brain injury, or dementia.

Sec. 23. RCW 10.77.250 and 2023 c 120 s 14 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Within amounts appropriated, the department shall be responsible for all costs relating to the evaluation and inpatient treatment of persons committed to it pursuant to any provisions of this chapter, and the logistical and supportive services pertaining thereto except as otherwise provided by law. Reimbursement may be obtained by the department pursuant to RCW 43.20B.330.

(2) Within amounts appropriated, the authority shall be responsible for all costs relating to outpatient ((competency)) restoration programs.

(3) The office of public defense shall be responsible for costs of public defense services, including defense expert and professional services, for indigent persons acquitted by reason of insanity throughout the term of their commitment to state psychiatric care, including during any period of conditional release, until legal termination of commitment and final unconditional release.

Sec. 24. RCW 10.77.255 and 2023 c 453 s 19 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) The department shall coordinate with cities, counties, hospitals, and other public and private entities to identify locations that may be commissioned or renovated for use in treating clients committed to the department for ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation, ((competency)) restoration, civil conversion, or treatment following acquittal by reason of insanity.

(2) The department may provide capital grants to entities to accomplish the purposes described in subsection (1) of this section subject to provision of funding provided for this specific purpose.

Sec. 25. RCW 10.77.270 and 2013 c 289 s 3 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) The secretary shall establish an independent public safety review panel for the purpose of advising the secretary and the courts with respect to persons who have been found not guilty by reason of insanity, or persons committed under the involuntary treatment act where the court has made a special finding under RCW 71.05.280(3)(b). The panel shall provide advice regarding all recommendations to the secretary, decisions by the secretary, or actions pending in court: (a) For a change in commitment status; (b) to allow furloughs or temporary leaves accompanied by staff; (c) not to seek further commitment terms under RCW 71.05.320; or (d) to permit movement about the grounds of the treatment facility, with or without the accompaniment of staff.

(2) The members of the public safety review panel shall be appointed by the governor for a renewable term of three years and shall include the following:

(a) A psychiatrist;

(b) A licensed clinical psychologist;

(d) A prosecutor or a representative of a prosecutor's association;

(e) A representative of law enforcement or a law enforcement association;

(f) A consumer and family advocate representative; and

(g) A public defender or a representative of a defender's association.

(3) Thirty days prior to issuing a recommendation for conditional release under RCW 10.77.150 or forty-five days prior to issuing a recommendation for release under RCW 10.77.200, the secretary shall submit its recommendation with the committed person's application and the department's risk assessment to the public safety review panel. The public safety review panel shall complete an independent assessment of the public safety risk entailed by the secretary's proposed conditional release recommendation or release recommendation and provide this assessment in writing to the secretary. The public safety review panel may, within funds appropriated for this purpose, request additional evaluations of the committed person. The public safety review panel may indicate whether it is in agreement with the secretary's recommendation, or whether it would issue a different recommendation. The secretary shall provide the panel's assessment when it is received along with any supporting documentation, including all previous reports of evaluations of the committed person in the person's hospital record, to the court, prosecutor in the county that ordered the person's commitment, and counsel for the committed person.

(4) The secretary shall notify the public safety review panel at appropriate intervals concerning any changes in the commitment or custody status of persons found not guilty by reason of insanity, or persons committed under the involuntary treatment act where the court has made a special finding under RCW 71.05.280(3)(b). The panel shall have access, upon request, to a committed person's complete hospital record, and any other records deemed necessary by the public safety review panel.

(5) The department shall provide administrative and financial support to the public safety review panel. The department, in consultation with the public safety review panel, may adopt rules to implement this section.

(6) By December 1, 2014, the public safety review panel shall report to the appropriate legislative committees the following:

(a) Whether the public safety review panel has observed a change in statewide consistency of evaluations and decisions concerning changes in the commitment status of persons found not guilty by reason of insanity;

(b) Whether the public safety review panel should be given the authority to make release decisions and monitor release conditions;

(c) Whether further changes in the law are necessary to enhance public safety when ((incompetency))inability to proceed prevents operation of the criminal justice system and long-term commitment of the criminally insane; and

(d) Any other issues the public safety review panel deems relevant.

Sec. 26. RCW 10.77.310 and 2023 c 453 s 15 are each amended to read as follows:

Subject to the availability of funds appropriated for this specific purpose, the health care authority shall require the programs it contracts with to increase compensation for staff in outpatient ((competency)) restoration programs to provide compensation at competitive levels to improve recruitment and allow for the full implementation of outpatient ((competency)) restoration programs.

Sec. 27. RCW 10.77.320 and 2023 c 453 s 17 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Subject to the security and background investigation requirements of the jail, jails shall allow clinical intervention specialists to have access to individuals who are referred to receive services under this chapter and to all records relating to the health or conduct of the individual while incarcerated. Clinical intervention specialists shall support jail health services in providing direct services, enhanced oversight and monitoring of the behavioral health status of participating individuals. Clinical intervention specialists shall work collaboratively with jail health services to ensure appropriate prescriptions, medication compliance monitoring, and access to supportive behavioral health services to the individuals. Clinical intervention specialists shall coordinate with forensic navigators and the department to assist forensic navigators in making recommendations for appropriate placements, which may include recommendations for participation in an outpatient ((competency)) restoration program or a diversion program designed for the needs of the individual. The clinical intervention specialist shall notify the department if a participating individual appears to have stabilized in their behavioral health such that a new ((competency))ability to proceed evaluation is appropriate to reassess the individual's need for ((competency)) restoration treatment.

(2) The department shall establish a memorandum of understanding and any contracts needed with the jail to address the terms and conditions of allowing access to defendants and their records subject to the requirements of this section.

Sec. 28. RCW 10.77.940 and 1999 c 13 s 4 are each amended to read as follows:

The provisions of chapter 420, Laws of 1989 shall apply equally to persons in the custody of the department on May 13, 1989, who were found by a court to be not guilty by reason of insanity or ((incompetent to stand))unable to proceed to trial, or who have been found to have committed acts constituting a felony pursuant to RCW 71.05.280(3) and present a substantial likelihood of repeating similar acts, and the secretary shall cause such persons to be evaluated to ascertain if such persons are developmentally disabled for placement in a program specifically reserved for the treatment and training of persons with developmental disabilities.

Sec. 29. RCW 10.97.030 and 2016 c 81 s 4 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

For purposes of this chapter, the definitions of terms in this section shall apply.

(1) "The administration of criminal justice" means performance of any of the following activities: Detection, apprehension, detention, pretrial release, post-trial release, prosecution, adjudication, correctional supervision, or rehabilitation of accused persons or criminal offenders. The term also includes criminal identification activities and the collection, storage, dissemination of criminal history record information, and the compensation of victims of crime.

(2) "Conviction or other disposition adverse to the subject" means any disposition of charges other than: (a) A decision not to prosecute; (b) a dismissal; or (c) acquittal; with the following exceptions, which shall be considered dispositions adverse to the subject: An acquittal due to a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity and a dismissal by reason of ((incompetency))inability to proceed, pursuant to chapter 10.77 RCW; and a dismissal entered after a period of probation, suspension, or deferral of sentence.

(3) "Conviction record" means criminal history record information relating to an incident which has led to a conviction or other disposition adverse to the subject.

(4) "Criminal history record information" means information contained in records collected by criminal justice agencies, other than courts, on individuals, consisting of identifiable descriptions and notations of arrests, detentions, indictments, informations, or other formal criminal charges, and any disposition arising therefrom, including acquittals by reason of insanity, dismissals based on ((lack of competency))inability to proceed due to a mental disorder, sentences, correctional supervision, and release.

The term includes any issued certificates of restoration of opportunities and any information contained in records maintained by or obtained from criminal justice agencies, other than courts, which records provide individual identification of a person together with any portion of the individual's record of involvement in the criminal justice system as an alleged or convicted offender, except:

(a) Posters, announcements, or lists for identifying or apprehending fugitives or wanted persons;

(b) Original records of entry maintained by criminal justice agencies to the extent that such records are compiled and maintained chronologically and are accessible only on a chronological basis;

(c) Court indices and records of public judicial proceedings, court decisions, and opinions, and information disclosed during public judicial proceedings;

(d) Records of traffic violations which are not punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of more than ninety days;

(e) Records of any traffic offenses as maintained by the department of licensing for the purpose of regulating the issuance, suspension, revocation, or renewal of drivers' or other operators' licenses and pursuant to RCW 46.52.130;

(f) Records of any aviation violations or offenses as maintained by the department of transportation for the purpose of regulating pilots or other aviation operators, and pursuant to RCW 47.68.330;

(g) Announcements of executive clemency;

(h) Intelligence, analytical, or investigative reports and files.

(5) "Criminal justice agency" means: (a) A court; or (b) a government agency which performs the administration of criminal justice pursuant to a statute or executive order and which allocates a substantial part of its annual budget to the administration of criminal justice.

(6) "Disposition" means the formal conclusion of a criminal proceeding at whatever stage it occurs in the criminal justice system.

(7) "Dissemination" means disclosing criminal history record information or disclosing the absence of criminal history record information to any person or agency outside the agency possessing the information, subject to the following exceptions:

(a) When criminal justice agencies jointly participate in the maintenance of a single recordkeeping department as an alternative to maintaining separate records, the furnishing of information by that department to personnel of any participating agency is not a dissemination;

(b) The furnishing of information by any criminal justice agency to another for the purpose of processing a matter through the criminal justice system, such as a police department providing information to a prosecutor for use in preparing a charge, is not a dissemination;

(c) The reporting of an event to a recordkeeping agency for the purpose of maintaining the record is not a dissemination.

(8) "Nonconviction data" consists of all criminal history record information relating to an incident which has not led to a conviction or other disposition adverse to the subject, and for which proceedings are no longer actively pending. There shall be a rebuttable presumption that proceedings are no longer actively pending if more than one year has elapsed since arrest, citation, charge, or service of warrant and no disposition has been entered.

Sec. 30. RCW 4.24.550 and 2015 c 261 s 1 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) In addition to the disclosure under subsection (5) of this section, public agencies are authorized to release information to the public regarding sex offenders and kidnapping offenders when the agency determines that disclosure of the information is relevant and necessary to protect the public and counteract the danger created by the particular offender. This authorization applies to information regarding: (a) Any person adjudicated or convicted of a sex offense as defined in RCW 9A.44.128 or a kidnapping offense as defined by RCW 9A.44.128; (b) any person under the jurisdiction of the indeterminate sentence review board as the result of a sex offense or kidnapping offense; (c) any person committed as a sexually violent predator under chapter 71.09 RCW or as a sexual psychopath under chapter 71.06 RCW; (d) any person found not guilty of a sex offense or kidnapping offense by reason of insanity under chapter 10.77 RCW; and (e) any person found ((incompetent to stand))unable to proceed to trial due to a mental disorder for a sex offense or kidnapping offense and subsequently committed under chapter 71.05 or 71.34 RCW.

(2) Except for the information specifically required under subsection (5) of this section, the extent of the public disclosure of relevant and necessary information shall be rationally related to: (a) The level of risk posed by the offender to the community; (b) the locations where the offender resides, expects to reside, or is regularly found; and (c) the needs of the affected community members for information to enhance their individual and collective safety.

(3) Except for the information specifically required under subsection (5) of this section, local law enforcement agencies shall consider the following guidelines in determining the extent of a public disclosure made under this section: (a) For offenders classified as risk level I, the agency shall share information with other appropriate law enforcement agencies and, if the offender is a student, the public or private school regulated under Title 28A RCW or chapter 72.40 RCW which the offender is attending, or planning to attend. The agency may disclose, upon request, relevant, necessary, and accurate information to any victim or witness to the offense, any individual community member who lives near the residence where the offender resides, expects to reside, or is regularly found, and any individual who requests information regarding a specific offender; (b) for offenders classified as risk level II, the agency may also disclose relevant, necessary, and accurate information to public and private schools, child day care centers, family day care providers, public libraries, businesses and organizations that serve primarily children, women, or vulnerable adults, and neighbors and community groups near the residence where the offender resides, expects to reside, or is regularly found; (c) for offenders classified as risk level III, the agency may also disclose relevant, necessary, and accurate information to the public at large; and (d) because more localized notification is not feasible and homeless and transient offenders may present unique risks to the community, the agency may also disclose relevant, necessary, and accurate information to the public at large for offenders registered as homeless or transient.

(4) The county sheriff with whom an offender classified as risk level III is registered shall release a sex offender community notification that conforms to the guidelines established under RCW 4.24.5501.

(5)(a) When funded by federal grants or other sources, the Washington association of sheriffs and police chiefs shall create and maintain a statewide registered kidnapping and sex offender website, which shall be available to the public. The website shall post all level III and level II registered sex offenders, level I registered sex offenders only during the time they are out of compliance with registration requirements under RCW 9A.44.130 or if lacking a fixed residence as provided in RCW 9A.44.130, and all registered kidnapping offenders in the state of Washington.

(i) For level III offenders, the website shall contain, but is not limited to, the registered sex offender's name, relevant criminal convictions, address by hundred block, physical description, and photograph. The website shall provide mapping capabilities that display the sex offender's address by hundred block on a map. The website shall allow citizens to search for registered sex offenders within the state of Washington by county, city, zip code, last name, and address by hundred block.

(ii) For level II offenders, and level I sex offenders during the time they are out of compliance with registration requirements under RCW 9A.44.130, the website shall contain, but is not limited to, the same information and functionality as described in (a)(i) of this subsection, provided that it is permissible under state and federal law. If it is not permissible, the website shall be limited to the information and functionality that is permissible under state and federal law.

(iii) For kidnapping offenders, the website shall contain, but is not limited to, the same information and functionality as described in (a)(i) of this subsection, provided that it is permissible under state and federal law. If it is not permissible, the website shall be limited to the information and functionality that is permissible under state and federal law.

(b) Law enforcement agencies must provide information requested by the Washington association of sheriffs and police chiefs to administer the statewide registered kidnapping and sex offender website.

(c)(i) Within five business days of the Washington association of sheriffs and police chiefs receiving any public record request under chapter 42.56 RCW for sex offender and kidnapping offender information, records or website data it holds or maintains pursuant to this section or a unified sex offender registry, the Washington association of sheriffs and police chiefs shall refer the requester in writing to the appropriate law enforcement agency or agencies for submission of such a request. The Washington association of sheriffs and police chiefs shall have no further obligation under chapter 42.56 RCW for responding to such a request.

(ii) This ((subparagraph))subsection (5)(c) of this section is remedial and applies retroactively.

(6)(a) Law enforcement agencies responsible for the registration and dissemination of information regarding offenders required to register under RCW 9A.44.130 shall assign a risk level classification to all offenders after consideration of: (i) Any available risk level classifications provided by the department of corrections, the department of social and health services, and the indeterminate sentence review board; (ii) the agency's own application of a sex offender risk assessment tool; and (iii) other information and aggravating or mitigating factors known to the agency and deemed rationally related to the risk posed by the offender to the community at large.

(b) A sex offender shall be classified as a risk level I if his or her risk assessment and other information or factors deemed relevant by the law enforcement agency indicate he or she is at a low risk to sexually reoffend within the community at large. A sex offender shall be classified as a risk level II if his or her risk assessment and other information or factors deemed relevant by the law enforcement agency indicate he or she is at a moderate risk to sexually reoffend within the community at large. A sex offender shall be classified as a risk level III if his or her risk assessment and other information or factors deemed relevant by the law enforcement agency indicate he or she is at a high risk to sexually reoffend within the community at large.

(c) The agency shall make a good faith effort to notify the public and residents within a reasonable period of time after the offender registers with the agency.

(d) Agencies may develop a process to allow an offender to petition for review of the offender's assigned risk level classification. The timing, frequency, and process for review are at the sole discretion of the agency.

(7) An appointed or elected public official, public employee, or public agency as defined in RCW 4.24.470, or units of local government and its employees, as provided in RCW 36.28A.010, are immune from civil liability for damages for any discretionary risk level classification decisions or release of relevant and necessary information, unless it is shown that the official, employee, or agency acted with gross negligence or in bad faith. The immunity in this section applies to risk level classification decisions and the release of relevant and necessary information regarding any individual for whom disclosure is authorized. The decision of a law enforcement agency or official to classify an offender to a risk level other than the one assigned by the department of corrections, the department of social and health services, or the indeterminate sentence review board, or the release of any relevant and necessary information based on that different classification shall not, by itself, be considered gross negligence or bad faith. The immunity provided under this section applies to the release of relevant and necessary information to other public officials, public employees, or public agencies, and to the general public.

(8) Except as may otherwise be provided by law, nothing in this section shall impose any liability upon a public official, public employee, or public agency for failing to release information authorized under this section.

(9) Nothing in this section implies that information regarding persons designated in subsection (1) of this section is confidential except as may otherwise be provided by law.

(10) When a law enforcement agency or official classifies an offender differently than the offender is classified by the end of sentence review committee at the time of the offender's release from confinement, the law enforcement agency or official shall notify the end of sentence review committee and the Washington state patrol and submit its reasons supporting the change in classification.

(11) As used in this section, "law enforcement agency" means a general authority Washington law enforcement agency as defined in RCW 10.93.020.

Sec. 31. RCW 7.68.250 and 1979 ex.s. c 219 s 17 are each amended to read as follows:

For purposes of this act, a person found not guilty as a result of ((the))a defense of mental ((disease or defect))disorder shall be deemed to be a convicted person.

Sec. 32. RCW 9.41.040 and 2023 c 295 s 3 and 2023 c 262 s 2 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

(1)(a) A person, whether an adult or juvenile, is guilty of the crime of unlawful possession of a firearm in the first degree, if the person owns, accesses, has in the person's custody, control, or possession, or receives any firearm after having previously been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity in this state or elsewhere of any serious offense.

(b) Unlawful possession of a firearm in the first degree is a class B felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.

(2)(a) A person, whether an adult or juvenile, is guilty of the crime of unlawful possession of a firearm in the second degree, if the person does not qualify under subsection (1) of this section for the crime of unlawful possession of a firearm in the first degree and the person owns, accesses, has in the person's custody, control, or possession, or receives any firearm:

(i) After having previously been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity in this state or elsewhere of:

(A) Any felony not specifically listed as prohibiting firearm possession under subsection (1) of this section;

(B) Any of the following crimes when committed by one family or household member against another or by one intimate partner against another, as those terms are defined by the statutes in effect at the time of the commission of the crime, committed on or after July 1, 1993: Assault in the fourth degree, coercion, stalking, reckless endangerment, criminal trespass in the first degree, or violation of the provisions of a protection order or no-contact order restraining the person or excluding the person from a residence (RCW 10.99.040 or any of the former RCW 26.50.060, 26.50.070, and 26.50.130);

(C) Harassment when committed by one family or household member against another or by one intimate partner against another, as those terms are defined by the statutes in effect at the time of the commission of the crime, committed on or after June 7, 2018;

(D) Any of the following misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor crimes not included under (a)(i) (B) or (C) of this subsection, committed on or after July 23, 2023: Domestic violence (RCW 10.99.020); stalking; cyberstalking; cyber harassment, excluding cyber harassment committed solely pursuant to the element set forth in RCW 9A.90.120(1)(a)(i); harassment; aiming or discharging a firearm (RCW 9.41.230); unlawful carrying or handling of a firearm (RCW 9.41.270); animal cruelty in the second degree committed under RCW 16.52.207(1); or any prior offense as defined in RCW 46.61.5055(14) if committed within seven years of a conviction for any other prior offense under RCW 46.61.5055;

(E) A violation of the provisions of a protection order under chapter 7.105 RCW restraining the person or excluding the person from a residence, when committed by one family or household member against another or by one intimate partner against another, committed on or after July 1, 2022; or

(F) A violation of the provisions of an order to surrender and prohibit weapons, an extreme risk protection order, or the provisions of any other protection order or no-contact order not included under (a)(i) (B) or (E) of this subsection restraining the person or excluding the person from a residence, committed on or after July 23, 2023;

(ii) During any period of time that the person is subject to a protection order, no-contact order, or restraining order by a court issued under chapter 7.105, 9A.40, 9A.44, 9A.46, 9A.88, 10.99, 26.09, 26.26A, or 26.26B RCW or any of the former chapters 7.90, 7.92, 10.14, and 26.50 RCW that:

(A) Was issued after a hearing for which the person received actual notice, and at which the person had an opportunity to participate, whether the court then issues a full order or reissues a temporary order. If the court enters an agreed order by the parties without a hearing, such an order meets the requirements of this subsection;

(B) Restrains the person from harassing, stalking, or threatening the person protected under the order or child of the person or protected person, or others identified in the order, or engaging in other conduct that would place the protected person in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the protected person or child or others identified in the order; and

(C)(I) Includes a finding that the person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of the protected person or child or others identified in the order, or by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against the protected person or child or other persons that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury; or

(II) Includes an order under RCW 9.41.800 requiring the person to surrender all firearms and prohibiting the person from accessing, having in his or her custody or control, possessing, purchasing, receiving, or attempting to purchase or receive, firearms;

(iii) After having previously been involuntarily committed based on a mental disorder under RCW 71.05.240, 71.05.320, 71.34.740, 71.34.750, chapter 10.77 RCW, or equivalent statutes of another jurisdiction, unless his or her right to possess a firearm has been restored as provided in RCW 9.41.047;

(iv) After dismissal of criminal charges based on ((incompetency to stand))inability to proceed to trial under RCW 10.77.088 when the court has made a finding indicating that the defendant has a history of one or more violent acts, unless his or her right to possess a firearm has been restored as provided in RCW 9.41.047;

(v) If the person is under 18 years of age, except as provided in RCW 9.41.042; and/or

(vi) If the person is free on bond or personal recognizance pending trial for a serious offense as defined in RCW 9.41.010.

(b) Unlawful possession of a firearm in the second degree is a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.

(3) A person shall not be precluded from possession of a firearm if the conviction has been the subject of a pardon, annulment, certificate of rehabilitation, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of the rehabilitation of the person convicted or the conviction or disposition has been the subject of a pardon, annulment, or other equivalent procedure based on a finding of innocence. Where no record of the court's disposition of the charges can be found, there shall be a rebuttable presumption that the person was not convicted of the charge.

(4) Notwithstanding subsection (1) or (2) of this section, a person convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity of an offense prohibiting the possession of a firearm under this section other than murder, manslaughter, robbery, rape, indecent liberties, arson, assault, kidnapping, extortion, burglary, or violations with respect to controlled substances under RCW 69.50.401 and 69.50.410, who received a probationary sentence under RCW 9.95.200, and who received a dismissal of the charge under RCW 9.95.240, shall not be precluded from possession of a firearm as a result of the conviction or finding of not guilty by reason of insanity.

(5) In addition to any other penalty provided for by law, if a person under the age of 18 years is found by a court to have possessed a firearm in a vehicle in violation of subsection (1) or (2) of this section or to have committed an offense while armed with a firearm during which offense a motor vehicle served an integral function, the court shall notify the department of licensing within 24 hours and the person's privilege to drive shall be revoked under RCW 46.20.265, unless the offense is the juvenile's first offense in violation of this section and has not committed an offense while armed with a firearm, an unlawful possession of a firearm offense, or an offense in violation of chapter 66.44, 69.52, 69.41, or 69.50 RCW.

(6) Nothing in chapter 129, Laws of 1995 shall ever be construed or interpreted as preventing an offender from being charged and subsequently convicted for the separate felony crimes of theft of a firearm or possession of a stolen firearm, or both, in addition to being charged and subsequently convicted under this section for unlawful possession of a firearm in the first or second degree. Notwithstanding any other law, if the offender is convicted under this section for unlawful possession of a firearm in the first or second degree and for the felony crimes of theft of a firearm or possession of a stolen firearm, or both, then the offender shall serve consecutive sentences for each of the felony crimes of conviction listed in this subsection.

(7)(a) A person, whether an adult or a juvenile, commits the civil infraction of unlawful possession of a firearm if the person has in the person's possession or has in the person's control a firearm after the person files a voluntary waiver of firearm rights under RCW 9.41.350 and the form has been accepted by the clerk of the court and the voluntary waiver has not been lawfully revoked.

(b) The civil infraction of unlawful possession of a firearm is a class 4 civil infraction punishable according to chapter 7.80 RCW.

(d) The court may, in its discretion, order performance of up to two hours of community restitution in lieu of a monetary penalty prescribed for a civil infraction under this subsection (7).

(8) Each firearm unlawfully possessed under this section shall be a separate offense.

(9) A person may petition to restore the right to possess a firearm as provided in RCW 9.41.041.

Sec. 33. RCW 9.41.047 and 2023 c 295 s 5 and 2023 c 161 s 3 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

(1)(a) At the time a person is convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity of an offense making the person ineligible to possess a firearm under state or federal law, including if the person was convicted of possession under RCW 69.50.4011, 69.50.4013, 69.50.4014, or 69.41.030, or at the time a person is committed by court order under RCW 71.05.240, 71.05.320, 71.34.740, 71.34.750, or chapter 10.77 RCW for treatment for a mental disorder, or at the time that charges are dismissed based on ((incompetency to stand))inability to proceed to trial under RCW 10.77.088 and the court makes a finding that the person has a history of one or more violent acts, the court shall notify the person, orally and in writing, that the person must immediately surrender all firearms and any concealed pistol license and that the person may not possess a firearm unless the person's right to do so is restored by the superior court that issued the order.

(b) The court shall forward within three judicial days after conviction, finding of not guilty by reason of insanity, entry of the commitment order, or dismissal of charges, a copy of the person's driver's license or identicard, or comparable information such as the person's name, address, and date of birth, along with the date of conviction or commitment, or date charges are dismissed, to the department of licensing and to the Washington state patrol firearms background check program. When a person is committed by court order under RCW 71.05.240, 71.05.320, 71.34.740, 71.34.750, or chapter 10.77 RCW, for treatment for a mental disorder, or when a person's charges are dismissed based on ((incompetency to stand trial))inability to proceed to trial under RCW 10.77.088 and the court makes a finding that the person has a history of one or more violent acts, the court also shall forward, within three judicial days after entry of the commitment order, or dismissal of charges, a copy of the person's driver's license, or comparable information, along with the date of commitment or date charges are dismissed, to the national instant criminal background check system index, denied persons file, created by the federal Brady handgun violence prevention act (P.L. 103-159) and to the Washington state patrol. The petitioning party shall provide the court with the information required. If more than one commitment order is entered under one cause number, only one notification to the department of licensing, the Washington state patrol firearms background check program, and the national instant criminal background check system is required.

(2) Upon receipt of the information provided for by subsection (1) of this section, the department of licensing shall determine if the person has a concealed pistol license. If the person has a concealed pistol license, the department of licensing shall immediately notify the license-issuing authority which, upon receipt of such notification, shall immediately revoke the license.

(3)(a) A person who is prohibited from possessing a firearm, by reason of having been involuntarily committed for treatment for a mental disorder under RCW 71.05.240, 71.05.320, 71.34.740, 71.34.750, chapter 10.77 RCW, or equivalent statutes of another jurisdiction, or by reason of having been detained under RCW 71.05.150 or 71.05.153, or because the person's charges were dismissed based on ((incompetency to stand))inability to proceed to trial under RCW 10.77.088 and the court made a finding that the person has a history of one or more violent acts, may, upon discharge, petition the superior court to have his or her right to possess a firearm restored, except that a person found not guilty by reason of insanity may not petition for restoration of the right to possess a firearm until one year after discharge.

(b) The petition must be brought in the superior court that ordered the involuntary commitment or dismissed the charges based on ((incompetency to stand))inability to proceed to trial or the superior court of the county in which the petitioner resides.

(c) Except as provided in (d) and (e) of this subsection, firearm rights shall be restored if the person petitioning for restoration of firearm rights proves by a preponderance of the evidence that:

(i) The person petitioning for restoration of firearm rights is no longer required to participate in court-ordered inpatient or outpatient treatment;

(ii) The person petitioning for restoration of firearm rights has successfully managed the condition related to the commitment or detention or ((incompetency))inability to proceed due to a mental disorder;

(iii) The person petitioning for restoration of firearm rights no longer presents a substantial danger to self or to the public; and

(iv) The symptoms related to the commitment or detention or ((incompetency))inability to proceed due to a mental disorder are not reasonably likely to recur.

(d) If a preponderance of the evidence in the record supports a finding that the person petitioning for restoration of firearm rights has engaged in violence and that it is more likely than not that the person will engage in violence after the person's right to possess a firearm is restored, the person petitioning for restoration of firearm rights shall bear the burden of proving by clear, cogent, and convincing evidence that the person does not present a substantial danger to the safety of others.

(e) If the person seeking restoration of firearm rights seeks restoration after having been detained under RCW 71.05.150 or 71.05.153, the state shall bear the burden of proof to show, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the person does not meet the restoration criteria in (c) of this subsection.

(f) When a person's right to possess a firearm has been restored under this subsection, the court shall forward, within three judicial days after entry of the restoration order, notification that the person's right to possess a firearm has been restored to the department of licensing and the Washington state patrol criminal records division, with a copy of the person's driver's license or identicard, or comparable identification such as the person's name, address, and date of birth, and to the health care authority, and the national instant criminal background check system index, denied persons file. In the case of a person whose right to possess a firearm has been suspended for six months as provided in RCW 71.05.182, the department of licensing shall forward notification of the restoration order to the licensing authority, which, upon receipt of such notification, shall immediately lift the suspension, restoring the person's concealed pistol license.

(4) No person who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity may petition a court for restoration of the right to possess a firearm unless the person meets the requirements for the restoration of the right to possess a firearm under RCW 9.41.041.

Sec. 34. RCW 9.41.098 and 2016 sp.s. c 29 s 281 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) The superior courts and the courts of limited jurisdiction of the state may order forfeiture of a firearm which is proven to be:

(a) Found concealed on a person not authorized by RCW 9.41.060 or 9.41.070 to carry a concealed pistol: PROVIDED, That it is an absolute defense to forfeiture if the person possessed a valid Washington concealed pistol license within the preceding two years and has not become ineligible for a concealed pistol license in the interim. Before the firearm may be returned, the person must pay the past due renewal fee and the current renewal fee;

(b) Commercially sold to any person without an application as required by RCW 9.41.090;

(d) In the possession or under the control of a person at the time the person committed or was arrested for committing a felony or committing a nonfelony crime in which a firearm was used or displayed;

(e) In the possession of a person who is in any place in which a concealed pistol license is required, and who is under the influence of any drug or under the influence of intoxicating liquor, as defined in chapter 46.61 RCW;

(f) In the possession of a person free on bail or personal recognizance pending trial, appeal, or sentencing for a felony or for a nonfelony crime in which a firearm was used or displayed, except that violations of Title 77 RCW shall not result in forfeiture under this section;

(g) In the possession of a person found to have been ((mentally incompetent))unable to proceed due to a mental disorder while in possession of a firearm when apprehended or who is thereafter committed pursuant to chapter 10.77 RCW or committed for mental health treatment under chapter 71.05 RCW;

(h) Used or displayed by a person in the violation of a proper written order of a court of general jurisdiction; or

(i) Used in the commission of a felony or of a nonfelony crime in which a firearm was used or displayed.

(2) Upon order of forfeiture, the court in its discretion may order destruction of any forfeited firearm. A court may temporarily retain forfeited firearms needed for evidence.

(a) Except as provided in (b), (c), and (d) of this subsection, firearms that are: (i) Judicially forfeited and no longer needed for evidence; or (ii) forfeited due to a failure to make a claim under RCW 63.32.010 or 63.40.010; may be disposed of in any manner determined by the local legislative authority. Any proceeds of an auction or trade may be retained by the legislative authority. This subsection (2)(a) applies only to firearms that come into the possession of the law enforcement agency after June 30, 1993.

By midnight, June 30, 1993, every law enforcement agency shall prepare an inventory, under oath, of every firearm that has been judicially forfeited, has been seized and may be subject to judicial forfeiture, or that has been, or may be, forfeited due to a failure to make a claim under RCW 63.32.010 or 63.40.010.

(b) Except as provided in (c) of this subsection, of the inventoried firearms a law enforcement agency shall destroy illegal firearms, may retain a maximum of ten percent of legal forfeited firearms for agency use, and shall either:

(i) Comply with the provisions for the auction of firearms in ((RCW 9.41.098))this section that were in effect immediately preceding May 7, 1993; or

(ii) Trade, auction, or arrange for the auction of, rifles and shotguns. In addition, the law enforcement agency shall either trade, auction, or arrange for the auction of, short firearms, or shall pay a fee of twenty-five dollars to the state treasurer for every short firearm neither auctioned nor traded, to a maximum of fifty thousand dollars. The fees shall be accompanied by an inventory, under oath, of every short firearm listed in the inventory required by (a) of this subsection, that has been neither traded nor auctioned. The state treasurer shall credit the fees to the firearms range account established in RCW 79A.25.210. All trades or auctions of firearms under this subsection shall be to licensed dealers. Proceeds of any auction less costs, including actual costs of storage and sale, shall be forwarded to the firearms range account established in RCW 79A.25.210.

(c) Antique firearms and firearms recognized as curios, relics, and firearms of particular historical significance by the United States treasury department bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms, and explosives are exempt from destruction and shall be disposed of by auction or trade to licensed dealers.

(d) Firearms in the possession of the Washington state patrol on or after May 7, 1993, that are judicially forfeited and no longer needed for evidence, or forfeited due to a failure to make a claim under RCW 63.35.020, must be disposed of as follows: (i) Firearms illegal for any person to possess must be destroyed; (ii) the Washington state patrol may retain a maximum of ten percent of legal firearms for agency use; and (iii) all other legal firearms must be auctioned or traded to licensed dealers. The Washington state patrol may retain any proceeds of an auction or trade.

(3) The court shall order the firearm returned to the owner upon a showing that there is no probable cause to believe a violation of subsection (1) of this section existed or the firearm was stolen from the owner or the owner neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission involving the firearm which resulted in its forfeiture.

(4) A law enforcement officer of the state or of any county or municipality may confiscate a firearm found to be in the possession of a person under circumstances specified in subsection (1) of this section. After confiscation, the firearm shall not be surrendered except: (a) To the prosecuting attorney for use in subsequent legal proceedings; (b) for disposition according to an order of a court having jurisdiction as provided in subsection (1) of this section; or (c) to the owner if the proceedings are dismissed or as directed in subsection (3) of this section.

Sec. 35. RCW 9.94B.080 and 2015 c 80 s 1 are each amended to read as follows:

The court may order an offender whose sentence includes community placement or community supervision to undergo a mental status evaluation and to participate in available outpatient mental health treatment, if the court finds that reasonable grounds exist to believe that the offender is a mentally ill person as defined in RCW 71.24.025, and that this condition is likely to have influenced the offense. An order requiring mental status evaluation or treatment may be based on a presentence report and, if applicable, mental status evaluations that have been filed with the court to determine the offender's ((competency))ability to stand trial or eligibility for a defense of insanity. The court may order additional evaluations at a later date if deemed appropriate.

Sec. 36. RCW 9.98.010 and 2021 c 265 s 1 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Whenever a person has entered upon a term of imprisonment in a penal, correctional, or juvenile rehabilitation institution of this state, and whenever during the continuance of the term of imprisonment there is pending in this state any untried indictment, information, or complaint against the person, he or she shall be brought to trial within 120 days after he or she shall have caused to be delivered to the prosecuting attorney and the court in which the indictment, information, or complaint is pending written notice of the place of his or her imprisonment and his or her request for a final disposition to be made of the indictment, information, or complaint. The following time periods shall be excluded from the 120-day calculation:

(a) Arraignment, pretrial proceedings, trial, and sentencing on an unrelated charge in a different county than the court where the charge is pending;

(b) Proceedings related to ((competency to stand))ability to proceed to trial on the pending charge, from the entry of an evaluation order to the entry of a court order finding the person ((competent))able to proceed; and

(c) Time during which the person is detained in a federal jail or prison and subject to conditions of release not imposed by the state of Washington.

(2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee who provides the certificate under subsection (4) of this section shall inform any prosecuting attorney or court requesting transportation of the person to resolve an untried indictment, information, or complaint of the person's current location and availability for trial. If the person is unavailable for transportation due to court proceedings in another county, the superintendent shall inform the prosecuting attorney or court when the person becomes available for transportation and provide a new certificate containing the information under subsection (4) of this section.

(3) For good cause shown in open court, with the person or his or her counsel having the right to be present, the court having jurisdiction of the matter may grant any necessary or reasonable continuance.

(4) The request of the person shall be accompanied by a certificate of the superintendent or the superintendent's designee having custody of the person, stating the term of commitment under which the person is being held, the time already served, the time remaining to be served on the sentence, the amount of good time earned, the earned release date of the person, and any decisions of the indeterminate sentence review board relating to the person.

(5) The written notice and request for final disposition referred to in subsection (1) of this section shall be given or sent by the person to the superintendent or the superintendent's designee having custody of him or her, who shall promptly forward it together with the certificate to the appropriate prosecuting attorney and superior, district, municipal, or juvenile court by certified mail, return receipt requested.

(6) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee having custody of the person shall promptly inform him or her in writing of the source and contents of any untried indictment, information, or complaint against him or her concerning which the superintendent or the superintendent's designee has knowledge and of his or her right to make a request for final disposition thereof.

(7) Escape from custody by the person subsequent to his or her execution of the request for final disposition referred to in subsection (1) of this section shall void the request.

Sec. 37. RCW 9A.12.010 and 2011 c 336 s 353 are each amended to read as follows:

To establish the defense of insanity, it must be shown that:

(1) At the time of the commission of the offense, as a result of ((mental disease or defect))a mental disorder, the mind of the actor was affected to such an extent that:

(a) He or she was unable to perceive the nature and quality of the act with which he or she is charged; or

(b) He or she was unable to tell right from wrong with reference to the particular act charged.

(2) The defense of insanity must be established by a preponderance of the evidence.

Sec. 38. RCW 10.01.160 and 2022 c 260 s 9 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) Except as provided in subsection (3) of this section, the court may require a defendant to pay costs. Costs may be imposed only upon a convicted defendant, except for costs imposed upon a defendant's entry into a deferred prosecution program, costs imposed upon a defendant for pretrial supervision, or costs imposed upon a defendant for preparing and serving a warrant for failure to appear.

(2) Costs shall be limited to expenses specially incurred by the state in prosecuting the defendant or in administering the deferred prosecution program under chapter 10.05 RCW or pretrial supervision. They cannot include expenses inherent in providing a constitutionally guaranteed jury trial or expenditures in connection with the maintenance and operation of government agencies that must be made by the public irrespective of specific violations of law. Expenses incurred for serving of warrants for failure to appear and jury fees under RCW 10.46.190 may be included in costs the court may require a defendant to pay. Costs for administering a deferred prosecution may not exceed $250. Costs for administering a pretrial supervision other than a pretrial electronic alcohol monitoring program, drug monitoring program, or 24/7 sobriety program may not exceed $150. Costs for preparing and serving a warrant for failure to appear may not exceed $100. Costs of incarceration imposed on a defendant convicted of a misdemeanor or a gross misdemeanor may not exceed the actual cost of incarceration. In no case may the court require the offender to pay more than $100 per day for the cost of incarceration. Payment of other court-ordered financial obligations, including all legal financial obligations and costs of supervision take precedence over the payment of the cost of incarceration ordered by the court. All funds received from defendants for the cost of incarceration in the county or city jail must be remitted for criminal justice purposes to the county or city that is responsible for the defendant's jail costs. Costs imposed constitute a judgment against a defendant and survive a dismissal of the underlying action against the defendant. However, if the defendant is acquitted on the underlying action, the costs for preparing and serving a warrant for failure to appear do not survive the acquittal, and the judgment that such costs would otherwise constitute shall be vacated.

(3) The court shall not order a defendant to pay costs if the defendant at the time of sentencing is indigent. In determining the amount and method of payment of costs for defendants who are not indigent, the court shall take account of the financial resources of the defendant and the nature of the burden that payment of costs will impose. For the purposes of this section, a defendant is "indigent" if the defendant: (a) Meets the criteria defined in RCW 10.101.010(3) (a) through (c); (b) is homeless or mentally ill as defined in RCW 71.24.025; (c) has household income above 125 percent of the federal poverty guidelines and has recurring basic living costs, as defined in RCW 10.101.010, that render the defendant without the financial ability to pay; or (d) has other compelling circumstances that exist that demonstrate an inability to pay.

(4) A defendant who has been ordered to pay costs and who has not willfully failed to pay the obligation, as described in RCW 9.94A.6333, 9.94B.040, and 10.01.180, may at any time petition the sentencing court for remission of the payment of costs or of any unpaid portion thereof. If it appears to the satisfaction of the court that payment of the amount due will impose manifest hardship on the defendant or the defendant's immediate family, the court may remit all or part of the amount due in costs, modify the method of payment under RCW 10.01.170, or convert the unpaid costs to community restitution hours, if the jurisdiction operates a community restitution program, at the rate of no less than the state minimum wage established in RCW 49.46.020 for each hour of community restitution. Manifest hardship exists where the defendant is indigent as defined in subsection (3) of this section.

(5) Except for direct costs relating to evaluating and reporting to the court, prosecutor, or defense counsel regarding a defendant's ((competency to stand))ability to proceed to trial as provided in RCW 10.77.060, this section shall not apply to costs related to medical or mental health treatment or services a defendant receives while in custody of the secretary of the department of social and health services or other governmental units. This section shall not prevent the secretary of the department of social and health services or other governmental units from imposing liability and seeking reimbursement from a defendant committed to an appropriate facility as provided in RCW 10.77.084 while criminal proceedings are stayed. This section shall also not prevent governmental units from imposing liability on defendants for costs related to providing medical or mental health treatment while the defendant is in the governmental unit's custody. Medical or mental health treatment and services a defendant receives at a state hospital or other facility are not a cost of prosecution and shall be recoverable under RCW 10.77.250 and 70.48.130, chapter 43.20B RCW, and any other applicable statute.

Sec. 39. RCW 41.37.010 and 2023 c 199 s 3 are each amended to read as follows:

The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.

(1) "Accumulated contributions" means the sum of all contributions standing to the credit of a member in the member's individual account, including any amount paid under RCW 41.50.165(2), together with the regular interest thereon.

(2) "Actuarial equivalent" means a benefit of equal value when computed upon the basis of such mortality and other tables as may be adopted by the director.

(3) "Adjustment ratio" means the value of index A divided by index B.

(4) "Annuity" means payments for life derived from accumulated contributions of a member. All annuities shall be paid in monthly installments.

(5)(a) "Average final compensation" means the member's average compensation earnable of the highest consecutive sixty months of service credit months prior to such member's retirement, termination, or death. Periods constituting authorized leaves of absence may not be used in the calculation of average final compensation except under RCW 41.37.290.

(b) In calculating average final compensation under (a) of this subsection, the department of retirement systems shall include:

(i) Any compensation forgone by a member employed by a state agency or institution during the 2009-2011 fiscal biennium as a result of reduced work hours, mandatory or voluntary leave without pay, temporary reduction in pay implemented prior to December 11, 2010, or temporary layoffs if the reduced compensation is an integral part of the employer's expenditure reduction efforts, as certified by the employer;

(ii) Any compensation forgone by a member employed by the state or a local government employer during the 2011-2013 fiscal biennium as a result of reduced work hours, mandatory leave without pay, temporary layoffs, or reductions to current pay if the reduced compensation is an integral part of the employer's expenditure reduction efforts, as certified by the employer. Reductions to current pay shall not include elimination of previously agreed upon future salary increases; and

(iii) Any compensation forgone by a member during the 2019-2021 and 2021-2023 fiscal biennia as a result of reduced work hours, mandatory leave without pay, temporary layoffs, furloughs, reductions to current pay, or other similar measures resulting from the COVID-19 budgetary crisis, if the reduced compensation is an integral part of the employer's expenditure reduction efforts, as certified by the employer. Reductions to current pay shall not include elimination of previously agreed upon future salary increases.

(6) "Beneficiary" means any person in receipt of a retirement allowance or other benefit provided by this chapter resulting from service rendered to an employer by another person.

(7)(a) "Compensation earnable" for members, means salaries or wages earned by a member during a payroll period for personal services, including overtime payments, and shall include wages and salaries deferred under provisions established pursuant to sections 403(b), 414(h), and 457 of the United States internal revenue code, but shall exclude nonmoney maintenance compensation and lump sum or other payments for deferred annual sick leave, unused accumulated vacation, unused accumulated annual leave, or any form of severance pay.

(b) "Compensation earnable" for members also includes the following actual or imputed payments, which are not paid for personal services:

(i) Retroactive payments to an individual by an employer on reinstatement of the employee in a position, or payments by an employer to an individual in lieu of reinstatement, which are awarded or granted as the equivalent of the salary or wage which the individual would have earned during a payroll period shall be considered compensation earnable to the extent provided in this subsection, and the individual shall receive the equivalent service credit;

(ii) In any year in which a member serves in the legislature, the member shall have the option of having such member's compensation earnable be the greater of:

(A) The compensation earnable the member would have received had such member not served in the legislature; or

(B) Such member's actual compensation earnable received for nonlegislative public employment and legislative service combined. Any additional contributions to the retirement system required because compensation earnable under (b)(ii)(A) of this subsection is greater than compensation earnable under (b)(ii)(B) of this subsection shall be paid by the member for both member and employer contributions;

(iii) Assault pay only as authorized by RCW 27.04.100, 72.01.045, and 72.09.240;

(iv) Compensation that a member would have received but for a disability occurring in the line of duty only as authorized by RCW 41.37.060;

(v) Compensation that a member receives due to participation in the leave sharing program only as authorized by RCW 41.04.650 through 41.04.670; and

(vi) Compensation that a member receives for being in standby status. For the purposes of this section, a member is in standby status when not being paid for time actually worked and the employer requires the member to be prepared to report immediately for work, if the need arises, although the need may not arise.

(8) "Department" means the department of retirement systems created in chapter 41.50 RCW.

(9) "Director" means the director of the department.

(10) "Eligible position" means any permanent, full-time position included in subsection (19) of this section.

(11) "Employee" or "employed" means a person who is providing services for compensation to an employer, unless the person is free from the employer's direction and control over the performance of work. The department shall adopt rules and interpret this subsection consistent with common law.

(12)(a) "Employer" means:

(i) The Washington state department of corrections;

(ii) The Washington state parks and recreation commission;

(iii) The Washington state gambling commission;

(iv) The Washington state patrol;

(v) The Washington state department of natural resources;

(vi) The Washington state liquor and cannabis board;

(vii) The Washington state department of veterans affairs;

(viii) The Washington state department of children, youth, and families;

(ix) The Washington state department of social and health services;

(x) Any county corrections department;

(xi) Any city corrections department not covered under chapter 41.28 RCW;

(xii) Any public corrections entity created under RCW 39.34.030 by counties, cities not covered under chapter 41.28 RCW, or both; and

(xiii) Any employer participating in the public employees' retirement system in chapter 41.40 RCW, some or all of whose employees' primary responsibility is to receive, process, transmit, or dispatch 911 emergency and nonemergency calls for law enforcement, fire, emergency medical, or other public safety services that is not already covered by the provisions of this subsection.

(b) Except as otherwise specifically provided in this chapter, "employer" does not include a government contractor. For purposes of this subsection, a "government contractor" is any entity, including a partnership, limited liability company, for-profit or nonprofit corporation, or person, that provides services pursuant to a contract with an employer. The determination whether an employer-employee relationship has been established is not based on the relationship between a government contractor and an employer, but is based solely on the relationship between a government contractor's employee and an employer under this chapter.

(13) "Final compensation" means the annual rate of compensation earnable by a member at the time of termination of employment.

(14) "Index" means, for any calendar year, that year's annual average consumer price index, Seattle, Washington area, for urban wage earners and clerical workers, all items, compiled by the bureau of labor statistics, United States department of labor.

(15) "Index A" means the index for the year prior to the determination of a postretirement adjustment.

(16) "Index B" means the index for the year prior to index A.

(17) "Ineligible position" means any position which does not conform with the requirements set forth in subsection (10) of this section.

(18) "Leave of absence" means the period of time a member is authorized by the employer to be absent from service without being separated from membership.

(19) "Member" means any employee employed by an employer on a full-time basis:

(a) Who is in a position that requires completion of a certified criminal justice training course and is authorized by their employer to arrest, conduct criminal investigations, enforce the criminal laws of the state of Washington, and carry a firearm as part of the job;

(b) Whose primary responsibility is to ensure the custody and security of incarcerated or probationary individuals as a corrections officer, probation officer, or jailer;

(d) Whose primary responsibility is to provide nursing care to, or to ensure the custody and safety of, offender, adult probationary, or patient populations; and who is in a position that requires completion of defensive tactics training or de-escalation training; and who is employed by one of the following state institutions or centers operated by the department of social and health services or the department of children, youth, and families:

(i) Juvenile rehabilitation administration institutions, not including community facilities;

(ii) Mental health hospitals;

(iii) Child study and treatment centers; or

(iv) Institutions or residential sites that serve developmentally disabled patients or offenders, or perform ((competency)) restoration treatment services, except for state-operated living alternatives facilities;

(e) Whose primary responsibility is to provide nursing care to offender and patient populations in institutions and centers operated by the following employers: A city or county corrections department as set forth in subsection (12) of this section, a public corrections entity as set forth in subsection (12) of this section, the Washington state department of corrections, or the Washington state department of veterans affairs;

(f) Whose primary responsibility is to receive, process, transmit, or dispatch 911 emergency and nonemergency calls for law enforcement, fire, emergency medical, or other public safety services, or to supervise those employees; or

(g) Whose primary responsibility is to supervise members eligible under this subsection.

(20) "Membership service" means all service rendered as a member.

(21) "Pension" means payments for life derived from contributions made by the employer. All pensions shall be paid in monthly installments.

(22) "Plan" means the Washington public safety employees' retirement system plan 2.

(23) "Regular interest" means such rate as the director may determine.

(24) "Retiree" means any person who has begun accruing a retirement allowance or other benefit provided by this chapter resulting from service rendered to an employer while a member.

(25) "Retirement" means withdrawal from active service with a retirement allowance as provided by this chapter.

(26) "Retirement allowance" means monthly payments to a retiree or beneficiary as provided in this chapter.

(27) "Retirement system" means the Washington public safety employees' retirement system provided for in this chapter.

(28) "Separation from service" occurs when a person has terminated all employment with an employer.

(29) "Service" means periods of employment by a member on or after July 1, 2006, for one or more employers for which compensation earnable is paid. Compensation earnable earned for ninety or more hours in any calendar month shall constitute one service credit month. Compensation earnable earned for at least seventy hours but less than ninety hours in any calendar month shall constitute one-half service credit month of service. Compensation earnable earned for less than seventy hours in any calendar month shall constitute one-quarter service credit month of service. Time spent in standby status, whether compensated or not, is not service.

Any fraction of a year of service shall be taken into account in the computation of such retirement allowance or benefits.

(a) Service in any state elective position shall be deemed to be full-time service.

(b) A member shall receive a total of not more than twelve service credit months of service for such calendar year. If an individual is employed in an eligible position by one or more employers the individual shall receive no more than one service credit month during any calendar month in which multiple service for ninety or more hours is rendered.

(c) Reduction efforts such as furloughs, reduced work hours, mandatory leave without pay, temporary layoffs, or other similar situations as contemplated by subsection (5)(b)(iii) of this section do not result in a reduction in service credit that otherwise would have been earned for that month of work, and the member shall receive the full service credit for the hours that were scheduled to be worked before the reduction.

(30) "Service credit month" means a month or an accumulation of months of service credit which is equal to one.

(31) "Service credit year" means an accumulation of months of service credit which is equal to one when divided by twelve.

(32) "State actuary" or "actuary" means the person appointed pursuant to RCW 44.44.010(2).

(33) "State elective position" means any position held by any person elected or appointed to statewide office or elected or appointed as a member of the legislature.

(34) "State treasurer" means the treasurer of the state of Washington.

Sec. 40. RCW 46.20.031 and 2002 c 279 s 3 are each amended to read as follows:

The department shall not issue a driver's license to a person:

(1) Who is under the age of sixteen years;

(2) Whose driving privilege has been withheld unless and until the department may authorize the driving privilege under RCW 46.20.311;

(3) Who has been classified as an alcoholic, drug addict, alcohol abuser, or drug abuser by a program approved by the department of social and health services. The department may, however, issue a license if the person:

(a) Has been granted a deferred prosecution under chapter 10.05 RCW; or

(b) Is satisfactorily participating in or has successfully completed an alcohol or drug abuse treatment program approved by the department of social and health services and has established control of his or her alcohol or drug abuse problem;

(4) Who has previously been ((adjudged to be mentally ill))adjudicated as a person with a mental disorder or to be criminally insane, or to be ((incompetent))unable to proceed due to a mental ((disability or disease))disorder. The department shall, however, issue a license to the person if he or she otherwise qualifies and:

(a) ((Has been restored to competency by the methods provided by law))His or her ability to proceed has been restored; or

(b) The superior court finds the person able to operate a motor vehicle with safety upon the highways ((during such incompetency))while unable to proceed;

(5) Who has not passed the driver's licensing examination required by RCW 46.20.120 and 46.20.305, if applicable;

(6) Who is required under the laws of this state to deposit proof of financial responsibility and who has not deposited such proof;

(7) Who is unable to safely operate a motor vehicle upon the highways due to a physical or mental disability. The department's conclusion that a person is barred from licensing under this subsection must be reasonable and be based upon good and substantial evidence. This determination is subject to review by a court of competent jurisdiction.

Sec. 41. RCW 70.02.010 and 2020 c 302 s 112 and 2020 c 256 s 401 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.

(1) "Admission" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(2) "Audit" means an assessment, evaluation, determination, or investigation of a health care provider by a person not employed by or affiliated with the provider to determine compliance with:

(a) Statutory, regulatory, fiscal, medical, or scientific standards;

(b) A private or public program of payments to a health care provider; or

(3) "Authority" means the Washington state health care authority.

(4) "Commitment" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(5) "Custody" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(6) "Deidentified" means health information that does not identify an individual and with respect to which there is no reasonable basis to believe that the information can be used to identify an individual.

(7) "Department" means the department of social and health services.

(8) "Designated crisis responder" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020 or 71.34.020, as applicable.

(9) "Detention" or "detain" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(10) "Directory information" means information disclosing the presence, and for the purpose of identification, the name, location within a health care facility, and the general health condition of a particular patient who is a patient in a health care facility or who is currently receiving emergency health care in a health care facility.

(11) "Discharge" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(12) "Evaluation and treatment facility" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020 or 71.34.020, as applicable.

(13) "Federal, state, or local law enforcement authorities" means an officer of any agency or authority in the United States, a state, a tribe, a territory, or a political subdivision of a state, a tribe, or a territory who is empowered by law to: (a) Investigate or conduct an official inquiry into a potential criminal violation of law; or (b) prosecute or otherwise conduct a criminal proceeding arising from an alleged violation of law.

(14) "General health condition" means the patient's health status described in terms of "critical," "poor," "fair," "good," "excellent," or terms denoting similar conditions.

(15) "Health care" means any care, service, or procedure provided by a health care provider:

(a) To diagnose, treat, or maintain a patient's physical or mental condition; or

(b) That affects the structure or any function of the human body.

(16) "Health care facility" means a hospital, clinic, nursing home, laboratory, office, or similar place where a health care provider provides health care to patients.

(17) "Health care information" means any information, whether oral or recorded in any form or medium, that identifies or can readily be associated with the identity of a patient and directly relates to the patient's health care, including a patient's deoxyribonucleic acid and identified sequence of chemical base pairs. The term includes any required accounting of disclosures of health care information.

(18) "Health care operations" means any of the following activities of a health care provider, health care facility, or third-party payor to the extent that the activities are related to functions that make an entity a health care provider, a health care facility, or a third-party payor:

(a) Conducting: Quality assessment and improvement activities, including outcomes evaluation and development of clinical guidelines, if the obtaining of generalizable knowledge is not the primary purpose of any studies resulting from such activities; population-based activities relating to improving health or reducing health care costs, protocol development, case management and care coordination, contacting of health care providers and patients with information about treatment alternatives; and related functions that do not include treatment;

(b) Reviewing the competence or qualifications of health care professionals, evaluating practitioner and provider performance and third-party payor performance, conducting training programs in which students, trainees, or practitioners in areas of health care learn under supervision to practice or improve their skills as health care providers, training of nonhealth care professionals, accreditation, certification, licensing, or credentialing activities;

(c) Underwriting, premium rating, and other activities relating to the creation, renewal, or replacement of a contract of health insurance or health benefits, and ceding, securing, or placing a contract for reinsurance of risk relating to claims for health care, including stop-loss insurance and excess of loss insurance, if any applicable legal requirements are met;

(d) Conducting or arranging for medical review, legal services, and auditing functions, including fraud and abuse detection and compliance programs;

(e) Business planning and development, such as conducting cost-management and planning-related analyses related to managing and operating the health care facility or third-party payor, including formulary development and administration, development, or improvement of methods of payment or coverage policies; and

(f) Business management and general administrative activities of the health care facility, health care provider, or third-party payor including, but not limited to:

(i) Management activities relating to implementation of and compliance with the requirements of this chapter;

(ii) Customer service, including the provision of data analyses for policyholders, plan sponsors, or other customers, provided that health care information is not disclosed to such policyholder, plan sponsor, or customer;

(iii) Resolution of internal grievances;

(iv) The sale, transfer, merger, or consolidation of all or part of a health care provider, health care facility, or third-party payor with another health care provider, health care facility, or third-party payor or an entity that following such activity will become a health care provider, health care facility, or third-party payor, and due diligence related to such activity; and

(v) Consistent with applicable legal requirements, creating deidentified health care information or a limited data set for the benefit of the health care provider, health care facility, or third-party payor.

(19) "Health care provider" means a person who is licensed, certified, registered, or otherwise authorized by the law of this state to provide health care in the ordinary course of business or practice of a profession.

(20) "Human immunodeficiency virus" or "HIV" has the same meaning as in RCW 70.24.017.

(21) "Imminent" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(22) "Indian health care provider" has the same meaning as in RCW 43.71B.010(11).

(23) "Information and records related to mental health services" means a type of health care information that relates to all information and records compiled, obtained, or maintained in the course of providing services by a mental health service agency or mental health professional to persons who are receiving or have received services for mental illness. The term includes mental health information contained in a medical bill, registration records, as defined in RCW 70.97.010, and all other records regarding the person maintained by the department, by the authority, by behavioral health administrative services organizations and their staff, managed care organizations contracted with the authority under chapter 74.09 RCW and their staff, and by treatment facilities. The term further includes documents of legal proceedings under chapter 71.05, 71.34, or 10.77 RCW, or somatic health care information. For health care information maintained by a hospital as defined in RCW 70.41.020 or a health care facility or health care provider that participates with a hospital in an organized health care arrangement defined under federal law, "information and records related to mental health services" is limited to information and records of services provided by a mental health professional or information and records of services created by a hospital-operated community behavioral health program as defined in RCW 71.24.025. The term does not include psychotherapy notes.

(24) "Information and records related to sexually transmitted diseases" means a type of health care information that relates to the identity of any person upon whom an HIV antibody test or other sexually transmitted infection test is performed, the results of such tests, and any information relating to diagnosis of or treatment for any confirmed sexually transmitted infections.

(25) "Institutional review board" means any board, committee, or other group formally designated by an institution, or authorized under federal or state law, to review, approve the initiation of, or conduct periodic review of research programs to assure the protection of the rights and welfare of human research subjects.

(26) "Legal counsel" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(27) "Local public health officer" has the same meaning as in RCW 70.24.017.

(28) "Maintain," as related to health care information, means to hold, possess, preserve, retain, store, or control that information.

(29) "Managed care organization" has the same meaning as provided in RCW 71.24.025.

(30) "Mental health professional" means a psychiatrist, psychologist, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, psychiatric nurse, or social worker, and such other mental health professionals as may be defined by rules adopted by the secretary of health under chapter 71.05 RCW, whether that person works in a private or public setting.

(31) "Mental health service agency" means a public or private agency that provides services to persons with mental disorders as defined under RCW 71.05.020 or 71.34.020 and receives funding from public sources. This includes evaluation and treatment facilities as defined in RCW 71.34.020, community mental health service delivery systems, or community behavioral health programs, as defined in RCW 71.24.025, and facilities conducting ((competency))ability to proceed evaluations and restoration under chapter 10.77 RCW.

(32) "Minor" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.34.020.

(33) "Parent" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.34.020.

(34) "Patient" means an individual who receives or has received health care. The term includes a deceased individual who has received health care.

(35) "Payment" means:

(a) The activities undertaken by:

(i) A third-party payor to obtain premiums or to determine or fulfill its responsibility for coverage and provision of benefits by the third-party payor; or

(ii) A health care provider, health care facility, or third-party payor, to obtain or provide reimbursement for the provision of health care; and

(b) The activities in (a) of this subsection that relate to the patient to whom health care is provided and that include, but are not limited to:

(i) Determinations of eligibility or coverage, including coordination of benefits or the determination of cost-sharing amounts, and adjudication or subrogation of health benefit claims;

(ii) Risk adjusting amounts due based on enrollee health status and demographic characteristics;

(iii) Billing, claims management, collection activities, obtaining payment under a contract for reinsurance, including stop-loss insurance and excess of loss insurance, and related health care data processing;

(iv) Review of health care services with respect to medical necessity, coverage under a health plan, appropriateness of care, or justification of charges;

(v) Utilization review activities, including precertification and preauthorization of services, and concurrent and retrospective review of services; and

(vi) Disclosure to consumer reporting agencies of any of the following health care information relating to collection of premiums or reimbursement:

(A) Name and address;

(B) Date of birth;

(D) Payment history;

(E) Account number; and

(F) Name and address of the health care provider, health care facility, and/or third-party payor.

(36) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, association, joint venture, government, governmental subdivision or agency, or any other legal or commercial entity.

(37) "Professional person" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(38) "Psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(39) "Psychotherapy notes" means notes recorded, in any medium, by a mental health professional documenting or analyzing the contents of conversations during a private counseling session or group, joint, or family counseling session, and that are separated from the rest of the individual's medical record. The term excludes mediation prescription and monitoring, counseling session start and stop times, the modalities and frequencies of treatment furnished, results of clinical tests, and any summary of the following items: Diagnosis, functional status, the treatment plan, symptoms, prognosis, and progress to date.

(40) "Reasonable fee" means the charges for duplicating or searching the record, but shall not exceed sixty-five cents per page for the first thirty pages and fifty cents per page for all other pages. In addition, a clerical fee for searching and handling may be charged not to exceed fifteen dollars. These amounts shall be adjusted biennially in accordance with changes in the consumer price index, all consumers, for Seattle-Tacoma metropolitan statistical area as determined by the secretary of health. However, where editing of records by a health care provider is required by statute and is done by the provider personally, the fee may be the usual and customary charge for a basic office visit.

(41) "Release" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(42) "Resource management services" has the same meaning as in RCW 71.05.020.

(43) "Serious violent offense" has the same meaning as in RCW 9.94A.030.

(44) "Sexually transmitted infection" or "sexually transmitted disease" has the same meaning as "sexually transmitted disease" in RCW 70.24.017.

(45) "Test for a sexually transmitted disease" has the same meaning as in RCW 70.24.017.

(46) "Third-party payor" means an insurer regulated under Title 48 RCW authorized to transact business in this state or other jurisdiction, including a health care service contractor, and health maintenance organization; or an employee welfare benefit plan, excluding fitness or wellness plans; or a state or federal health benefit program.

(47) "Treatment" means the provision, coordination, or management of health care and related services by one or more health care providers or health care facilities, including the coordination or management of health care by a health care provider or health care facility with a third party; consultation between health care providers or health care facilities relating to a patient; or the referral of a patient for health care from one health care provider or health care facility to another.

Sec. 42. RCW 70.02.230 and 2023 c 295 s 12 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) The fact of admission to a provider for mental health services and all information and records compiled, obtained, or maintained in the course of providing mental health services to either voluntary or involuntary recipients of services at public or private agencies may not be disclosed except as provided in this section, RCW 70.02.050, 71.05.445, 74.09.295, 70.02.210, 70.02.240, 70.02.250, 70.02.260, and 70.02.265, or pursuant to a valid authorization under RCW 70.02.030.

(2) Information and records related to mental health services, other than those obtained through treatment under chapter 71.34 RCW, may be disclosed:

(a) In communications between qualified professional persons to meet the requirements of chapter 71.05 RCW, including Indian health care providers, in the provision of services or appropriate referrals, or in the course of guardianship proceedings if provided to a professional person:

(i) Employed by the facility;

(ii) Who has medical responsibility for the patient's care;

(iii) Who is a designated crisis responder;

(iv) Who is providing services under chapter 71.24 RCW;

(v) Who is employed by a state or local correctional facility where the person is confined or supervised; or

(vi) Who is providing evaluation, treatment, or follow-up services under chapter 10.77 RCW;

(b) When the communications regard the special needs of a patient and the necessary circumstances giving rise to such needs and the disclosure is made by a facility providing services to the operator of a facility in which the patient resides or will reside;

(c)(i) When the person receiving services, or his or her guardian, designates persons to whom information or records may be released, or if the person is a minor, when his or her parents make such a designation;

(ii) A public or private agency shall release to a person's next of kin, attorney, personal representative, guardian, or conservator, if any:

(A) The information that the person is presently a patient in the facility or that the person is seriously physically ill;

(B) A statement evaluating the mental and physical condition of the patient, and a statement of the probable duration of the patient's confinement, if such information is requested by the next of kin, attorney, personal representative, guardian, or conservator; and

(iii) Other information requested by the next of kin or attorney as may be necessary to decide whether or not proceedings should be instituted to appoint a guardian or conservator;

(d)(i) To the courts, including tribal courts, as necessary to the administration of chapter 71.05 RCW or to a court ordering an evaluation or treatment under chapter 10.77 RCW solely for the purpose of preventing the entry of any evaluation or treatment order that is inconsistent with any order entered under chapter 71.05 RCW.

(ii) To a court or its designee in which a motion under chapter 10.77 RCW has been made for involuntary medication of a defendant for the purpose of ((competency)) restoration treatment.

(iii) Disclosure under this subsection is mandatory for the purpose of the federal health insurance portability and accountability act;

(e)(i) When a mental health professional or designated crisis responder is requested by a representative of a law enforcement or corrections agency, including a police officer, sheriff, community corrections officer, a municipal attorney, or prosecuting attorney to undertake an investigation or provide treatment under RCW 71.05.150, 10.31.110, or 71.05.153, the mental health professional or designated crisis responder shall, if requested to do so, advise the representative in writing of the results of the investigation including a statement of reasons for the decision to detain or release the person investigated. The written report must be submitted within seventy-two hours of the completion of the investigation or the request from the law enforcement or corrections representative, whichever occurs later.

(ii) Disclosure under this subsection is mandatory for the purposes of the federal health insurance portability and accountability act;

(f) To the attorney of the detained person;

(g) To the prosecuting attorney as necessary to carry out the responsibilities of the office under RCW 71.05.330(2), 71.05.340(1)(b), and 71.05.335. The prosecutor must be provided access to records regarding the committed person's treatment and prognosis, medication, behavior problems, and other records relevant to the issue of whether treatment less restrictive than inpatient treatment is in the best interest of the committed person or others. Information must be disclosed only after giving notice to the committed person and the person's counsel;

(h)(i) To appropriate law enforcement agencies and to a person, when the identity of the person is known to the public or private agency, whose health and safety has been threatened, or who is known to have been repeatedly harassed, by the patient. The person may designate a representative to receive the disclosure. The disclosure must be made by the professional person in charge of the public or private agency or his or her designee and must include the dates of commitment, admission, discharge, or release, authorized or unauthorized absence from the agency's facility, and only any other information that is pertinent to the threat or harassment. The agency or its employees are not civilly liable for the decision to disclose or not, so long as the decision was reached in good faith and without gross negligence.

(ii) Disclosure under this subsection is mandatory for the purposes of the federal health insurance portability and accountability act;

(i)(i) To appropriate corrections and law enforcement agencies all necessary and relevant information in the event of a crisis or emergent situation that poses a significant and imminent risk to the public. The mental health service agency or its employees are not civilly liable for the decision to disclose or not so long as the decision was reached in good faith and without gross negligence.

(ii) Disclosure under this subsection is mandatory for the purposes of the health insurance portability and accountability act;

(j) To the persons designated in RCW 71.05.425 for the purposes described in those sections;

(k) By a care coordinator under RCW 71.05.585 or 10.77.175 assigned to a person ordered to receive less restrictive alternative treatment for the purpose of sharing information to parties necessary for the implementation of proceedings under chapter 71.05 or 10.77 RCW;

(l) Upon the death of a person. The person's next of kin, personal representative, guardian, or conservator, if any, must be notified. Next of kin who are of legal age and competent must be notified under this section in the following order: Spouse, parents, children, brothers and sisters, and other relatives according to the degree of relation. Access to all records and information compiled, obtained, or maintained in the course of providing services to a deceased patient are governed by RCW 70.02.140;

(m) To mark headstones or otherwise memorialize patients interred at state hospital cemeteries. The department of social and health services shall make available the name, date of birth, and date of death of patients buried in state hospital cemeteries fifty years after the death of a patient;

(n) To law enforcement officers and to prosecuting attorneys as are necessary to enforce RCW 9.41.040(2)(a)(iii). The extent of information that may be released is limited as follows:

(i) Only the fact, place, and date of involuntary commitment, an official copy of any order or orders of commitment, and an official copy of any written or oral notice of ineligibility to possess a firearm that was provided to the person pursuant to RCW 9.41.047(1), must be disclosed upon request;

(ii) The law enforcement and prosecuting attorneys may only release the information obtained to the person's attorney as required by court rule and to a jury or judge, if a jury is waived, that presides over any trial at which the person is charged with violating RCW 9.41.040(2)(a)(iii);

(iii) Disclosure under this subsection is mandatory for the purposes of the federal health insurance portability and accountability act;

(o) When a patient would otherwise be subject to the provisions of this section and disclosure is necessary for the protection of the patient or others due to his or her unauthorized disappearance from the facility, and his or her whereabouts is unknown, notice of the disappearance, along with relevant information, may be made to relatives, the department of corrections when the person is under the supervision of the department, and governmental law enforcement agencies designated by the physician or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner in charge of the patient or the professional person in charge of the facility, or his or her professional designee;

(p) Pursuant to lawful order of a court, including a tribal court;

(q) To qualified staff members of the department, to the authority, to behavioral health administrative services organizations, to managed care organizations, to resource management services responsible for serving a patient, or to service providers designated by resource management services as necessary to determine the progress and adequacy of treatment and to determine whether the person should be transferred to a less restrictive or more appropriate treatment modality or facility;

(r) Within the mental health service agency or Indian health care provider facility where the patient is receiving treatment, confidential information may be disclosed to persons employed, serving in bona fide training programs, or participating in supervised volunteer programs, at the facility when it is necessary to perform their duties;

(s) Within the department and the authority as necessary to coordinate treatment for mental illness, developmental disabilities, or substance use disorder of persons who are under the supervision of the department;

(t) Between the department of social and health services, the department of children, youth, and families, and the health care authority as necessary to coordinate treatment for mental illness, developmental disabilities, or substance use disorder of persons who are under the supervision of the department of social and health services or the department of children, youth, and families;

(u) To a licensed physician or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner who has determined that the life or health of the person is in danger and that treatment without the information and records related to mental health services could be injurious to the patient's health. Disclosure must be limited to the portions of the records necessary to meet the medical emergency;

(v)(i) Consistent with the requirements of the federal health insurance portability and accountability act, to:

(A) A health care provider, including an Indian health care provider, who is providing care to a patient, or to whom a patient has been referred for evaluation or treatment; or

(B) Any other person who is working in a care coordinator role for a health care facility, health care provider, or Indian health care provider, or is under an agreement pursuant to the federal health insurance portability and accountability act with a health care facility or a health care provider and requires the information and records to assure coordinated care and treatment of that patient.

(ii) A person authorized to use or disclose information and records related to mental health services under this subsection (2)(v) must take appropriate steps to protect the information and records relating to mental health services.

(iii) Psychotherapy notes may not be released without authorization of the patient who is the subject of the request for release of information;

(w) To administrative and office support staff designated to obtain medical records for those licensed professionals listed in (v) of this subsection;

(x) To a facility that is to receive a person who is involuntarily committed under chapter 71.05 RCW, or upon transfer of the person from one evaluation and treatment facility to another. The release of records under this subsection is limited to the information and records related to mental health services required by law, a record or summary of all somatic treatments, and a discharge summary. The discharge summary may include a statement of the patient's problem, the treatment goals, the type of treatment which has been provided, and recommendation for future treatment, but may not include the patient's complete treatment record;

(y) To the person's counsel or guardian ad litem, without modification, at any time in order to prepare for involuntary commitment or recommitment proceedings, reexaminations, appeals, or other actions relating to detention, admission, commitment, or patient's rights under chapter 71.05 RCW;

(z) To staff members of the protection and advocacy agency or to staff members of a private, nonprofit corporation for the purpose of protecting and advocating the rights of persons with mental disorders or developmental disabilities. Resource management services may limit the release of information to the name, birthdate, and county of residence of the patient, information regarding whether the patient was voluntarily admitted, or involuntarily committed, the date and place of admission, placement, or commitment, the name and address of a guardian of the patient, and the date and place of the guardian's appointment. Any staff member who wishes to obtain additional information must notify the patient's resource management services in writing of the request and of the resource management services' right to object. The staff member shall send the notice by mail to the guardian's address. If the guardian does not object in writing within fifteen days after the notice is mailed, the staff member may obtain the additional information. If the guardian objects in writing within fifteen days after the notice is mailed, the staff member may not obtain the additional information;

(aa) To all current treating providers, including Indian health care providers, of the patient with prescriptive authority who have written a prescription for the patient within the last twelve months. For purposes of coordinating health care, the department or the authority may release without written authorization of the patient, information acquired for billing and collection purposes as described in RCW 70.02.050(1)(d). The department, or the authority, if applicable, shall notify the patient that billing and collection information has been released to named providers, and provide the substance of the information released and the dates of such release. Neither the department nor the authority may release counseling, inpatient psychiatric hospitalization, or drug and alcohol treatment information without a signed written release from the client;

(bb)(i) To the secretary of social and health services and the director of the health care authority for either program evaluation or research, or both so long as the secretary or director, where applicable, adopts rules for the conduct of the evaluation or research, or both. Such rules must include, but need not be limited to, the requirement that all evaluators and researchers sign an oath of confidentiality substantially as follows:

"As a condition of conducting evaluation or research concerning persons who have received services from (fill in the facility, agency, or person) I, . . . . . ., agree not to divulge, publish, or otherwise make known to unauthorized persons or the public any information obtained in the course of such evaluation or research regarding persons who have received services such that the person who received such services is identifiable.

I recognize that unauthorized release of confidential information may subject me to civil liability under the provisions of state law.

/s/ . . . . . ."

(ii) Nothing in this chapter may be construed to prohibit the compilation and publication of statistical data for use by government or researchers under standards, including standards to assure maintenance of confidentiality, set forth by the secretary, or director, where applicable;

(cc) To any person if the conditions in RCW 70.02.205 are met;

(dd) To the secretary of health for the purposes of the maternal mortality review panel established in RCW 70.54.450; or

(ee) To a tribe or Indian health care provider to carry out the requirements of RCW 71.05.150(6).

(3) Whenever federal law or federal regulations restrict the release of information contained in the information and records related to mental health services of any patient who receives treatment for a substance use disorder, the department or the authority may restrict the release of the information as necessary to comply with federal law and regulations.

(4) Civil liability and immunity for the release of information about a particular person who is committed to the department of social and health services or the authority under RCW 71.05.280(3) and 71.05.320(4)(c) after dismissal of a sex offense as defined in RCW 9.94A.030, is governed by RCW 4.24.550.

(5) The fact of admission to a provider of mental health services, as well as all records, files, evidence, findings, or orders made, prepared, collected, or maintained pursuant to chapter 71.05 RCW are not admissible as evidence in any legal proceeding outside that chapter without the written authorization of the person who was the subject of the proceeding except as provided in RCW 70.02.260, in a subsequent criminal prosecution of a person committed pursuant to RCW 71.05.280(3) or 71.05.320(4)(c) on charges that were dismissed pursuant to chapter 10.77 RCW due to ((incompetency to stand trial))inability to proceed, in a civil commitment proceeding pursuant to chapter 71.09 RCW, or, in the case of a minor, a guardianship or dependency proceeding. The records and files maintained in any court proceeding pursuant to chapter 71.05 RCW must be confidential and available subsequent to such proceedings only to the person who was the subject of the proceeding or his or her attorney. In addition, the court may order the subsequent release or use of such records or files only upon good cause shown if the court finds that appropriate safeguards for strict confidentiality are and will be maintained.

(6)(a) Except as provided in RCW 4.24.550, any person may bring an action against an individual who has willfully released confidential information or records concerning him or her in violation of the provisions of this section, for the greater of the following amounts:

(i) One thousand dollars; or

(ii) Three times the amount of actual damages sustained, if any.

(b) It is not a prerequisite to recovery under this subsection that the plaintiff suffered or was threatened with special, as contrasted with general, damages.

(c) Any person may bring an action to enjoin the release of confidential information or records concerning him or her or his or her ward, in violation of the provisions of this section, and may in the same action seek damages as provided in this subsection.

(d) The court may award to the plaintiff, should he or she prevail in any action authorized by this subsection, reasonable attorney fees in addition to those otherwise provided by law.

(e) If an action is brought under this subsection, no action may be brought under RCW 70.02.170.

Sec. 43. RCW 70.74.360 and 2009 c 39 s 1 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) The director of labor and industries shall require, as a condition precedent to the original issuance and upon renewal every three years thereafter of any explosive license, fingerprinting and criminal history record information checks of every applicant. In the case of a corporation, fingerprinting and criminal history record information checks shall be required for the management officials directly responsible for the operations where explosives are used if such persons have not previously had their fingerprints recorded with the department of labor and industries. In the case of a partnership, fingerprinting and criminal history record information checks shall be required of all general partners. Such fingerprints as are required by the department of labor and industries shall be submitted on forms provided by the department to the identification section of the Washington state patrol and to the identification division of the federal bureau of investigation in order that these agencies may search their records for prior convictions of the individuals fingerprinted. The Washington state patrol shall provide to the director of labor and industries such criminal record information as the director may request. The applicant shall give full cooperation to the department of labor and industries and shall assist the department of labor and industries in all aspects of the fingerprinting and criminal history record information check. The applicant shall be required to pay the current federal and state fee for fingerprint-based criminal history background checks.

(2) The director of labor and industries shall not issue a license to manufacture, purchase, store, use, or deal with explosives to:

(a) Any person under twenty-one years of age;

(b) Any person whose license is suspended or whose license has been revoked, except as provided in RCW 70.74.370;

(c) Any person who has been convicted in this state or elsewhere of a violent offense as defined in RCW 9.94A.030, perjury, false swearing, or bomb threats or a crime involving a schedule I or II controlled substance, or any other drug or alcohol related offense, unless such other drug or alcohol related offense does not reflect a drug or alcohol dependency. However, the director of labor and industries may issue a license if the person suffering a drug or alcohol related dependency is participating in or has completed an alcohol or drug recovery program acceptable to the department of labor and industries and has established control of their alcohol or drug dependency. The director of labor and industries shall require the applicant to provide proof of such participation and control; or

(d) Any person who has previously been adjudged to be mentally ill or insane, or to be ((incompetent))unable to proceed due to ((any))a mental ((disability or disease))disorder and who has not at the time of application ((been))had their ability to proceed restored ((to competency)).

(3) The director of labor and industries may establish reasonable licensing fees for the manufacture, dealing, purchase, use, and storage of explosives.

Sec. 44. RCW 70.74.370 and 1997 c 58 s 872 are each amended to read as follows:

(1) The department of labor and industries shall revoke and not renew the license of any person holding a manufacturer, dealer, purchaser, user, or storage license upon conviction of any of the following offenses, which conviction has become final:

(a) A violent offense as defined in RCW 9.94A.030;

(b) A crime involving perjury or false swearing, including the making of a false affidavit or statement under oath to the department of labor and industries in an application or report made pursuant to this title;

(d) A crime involving a schedule I or II controlled substance, or any other drug or alcohol related offense, unless such other drug or alcohol related offense does not reflect a drug or alcohol dependency. However, the department of labor and industries may condition renewal of the license to any convicted person suffering a drug or alcohol dependency who is participating in an alcoholism or drug recovery program acceptable to the department of labor and industries and has established control of their alcohol or drug dependency. The department of labor and industries shall require the licensee to provide proof of such participation and control;

(e) A crime relating to possession, use, transfer, or sale of explosives under this chapter or any other chapter of the Revised Code of Washington.

(2) The department of labor and industries shall revoke the license of any person ((adjudged to be mentally ill or))adjudicated to have a mental disorder or to be criminally insane, or to be ((incompetent))unable to proceed due to ((any mental disability or disease))a mental disorder. The director shall not renew the license until the ((person))person's ability to proceed has been restored ((to competency)).

(3) The department of labor and industries is authorized to suspend, for a period of time not to exceed six months, the license of any person who has violated this chapter or the rules promulgated pursuant to this chapter.

(4) The department of labor and industries may revoke the license of any person who has repeatedly violated this chapter or the rules promulgated pursuant to this chapter, or who has twice had his or her license suspended under this chapter.

(5) The department of labor and industries shall immediately suspend the license or certificate of a person who has been certified pursuant to RCW 74.20A.320 by the department of social and health services as a person who is not in compliance with a support order or a residential or visitation order. If the person has continued to meet all other requirements for reinstatement during the suspension, reissuance of the license or certificate shall be automatic upon the department of labor and industries' receipt of a release issued by the department of social and health services stating that the licensee is in compliance with the order.

(6) Upon receipt of notification by the department of labor and industries of revocation or suspension, a licensee must surrender immediately to the department any or all such licenses revoked or suspended.

Sec. 45. RCW 71.05.020 and 2023 c 433 s 3 and 2023 c 425 s 20 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.

(1) "23-hour crisis relief center" has the same meaning as under RCW 71.24.025;

(2) "Admission" or "admit" means a decision by a physician, physician assistant, or psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner that a person should be examined or treated as a patient in a hospital;

(3) "Alcoholism" means a disease, characterized by a dependency on alcoholic beverages, loss of control over the amount and circumstances of use, symptoms of tolerance, physiological or psychological withdrawal, or both, if use is reduced or discontinued, and impairment of health or disruption of social or economic functioning;

(4) "Antipsychotic medications" means that class of drugs primarily used to treat serious manifestations of mental illness associated with thought disorders, which includes, but is not limited to atypical antipsychotic medications;

(5) "Approved substance use disorder treatment program" means a program for persons with a substance use disorder provided by a treatment program certified by the department as meeting standards adopted under chapter 71.24 RCW;

(6) "Attending staff" means any person on the staff of a public or private agency having responsibility for the care and treatment of a patient;

(7) "Authority" means the Washington state health care authority;

(8) "Behavioral health disorder" means either a mental disorder as defined in this section, a substance use disorder as defined in this section, or a co-occurring mental disorder and substance use disorder;

(9) "Behavioral health service provider" means a public or private agency that provides mental health, substance use disorder, or co-occurring disorder services to persons with behavioral health disorders as defined under this section and receives funding from public sources. This includes, but is not limited to: Hospitals licensed under chapter 70.41 RCW; evaluation and treatment facilities as defined in this section; community mental health service delivery systems or community behavioral health programs as defined in RCW 71.24.025; licensed or certified behavioral health agencies under RCW 71.24.037; facilities conducting ((competency))ability to proceed evaluations and restoration under chapter 10.77 RCW; approved substance use disorder treatment programs as defined in this section; secure withdrawal management and stabilization facilities as defined in this section; and correctional facilities operated by state and local governments;

(10) "Co-occurring disorder specialist" means an individual possessing an enhancement granted by the department of health under chapter 18.205 RCW that certifies the individual to provide substance use disorder counseling subject to the practice limitations under RCW 18.205.105;

(11) "Commitment" means the determination by a court that a person should be detained for a period of either evaluation or treatment, or both, in an inpatient or a less restrictive setting;

(12) "Community behavioral health agency" has the same meaning as "licensed or certified behavioral health agency" defined in RCW 71.24.025;

(13) "Conditional release" means a revocable modification of a commitment, which may be revoked upon violation of any of its terms;

(14) "Crisis stabilization unit" means a short-term facility or a portion of a facility licensed or certified by the department, such as an evaluation and treatment facility or a hospital, which has been designed to assess, diagnose, and treat individuals experiencing an acute crisis without the use of long-term hospitalization, or to determine the need for involuntary commitment of an individual;

(15) "Custody" means involuntary detention under the provisions of this chapter or chapter 10.77 RCW, uninterrupted by any period of unconditional release from commitment from a facility providing involuntary care and treatment;

(16) "Department" means the department of health;

(17) "Designated crisis responder" means a mental health professional appointed by the county, by an entity appointed by the county, or by the authority in consultation with a federally recognized Indian tribe or after meeting and conferring with an Indian health care provider, to perform the duties specified in this chapter;

(18) "Detention" or "detain" means the lawful confinement of a person, under the provisions of this chapter;

(19) "Developmental disabilities professional" means a person who has specialized training and three years of experience in directly treating or working with persons with developmental disabilities and is a psychiatrist, physician assistant working with a supervising psychiatrist, psychologist, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, or social worker, and such other developmental disabilities professionals as may be defined by rules adopted by the secretary of the department of social and health services;

(20) "Developmental disability" means that condition defined in RCW 71A.10.020(6);

(21) "Director" means the director of the authority;

(22) "Discharge" means the termination of hospital medical authority. The commitment may remain in place, be terminated, or be amended by court order;

(23) "Drug addiction" means a disease, characterized by a dependency on psychoactive chemicals, loss of control over the amount and circumstances of use, symptoms of tolerance, physiological or psychological withdrawal, or both, if use is reduced or discontinued, and impairment of health or disruption of social or economic functioning;

(24) "Evaluation and treatment facility" means any facility which can provide directly, or by direct arrangement with other public or private agencies, emergency evaluation and treatment, outpatient care, and timely and appropriate inpatient care to persons suffering from a mental disorder, and which is licensed or certified as such by the department. The authority may certify single beds as temporary evaluation and treatment beds under RCW 71.05.745. A physically separate and separately operated portion of a state hospital may be designated as an evaluation and treatment facility. A facility which is part of, or operated by, the department of social and health services or any federal agency will not require certification. No correctional institution or facility, or jail, shall be an evaluation and treatment facility within the meaning of this chapter;

(25) "Gravely disabled" means a condition in which a person, as a result of a behavioral health disorder: (a) Is in danger of serious physical harm resulting from a failure to provide for his or her essential human needs of health or safety; or (b) manifests severe deterioration in routine functioning evidenced by repeated and escalating loss of cognitive or volitional control over his or her actions and is not receiving such care as is essential for his or her health or safety;

(26) "Habilitative services" means those services provided by program personnel to assist persons in acquiring and maintaining life skills and in raising their levels of physical, mental, social, and vocational functioning. Habilitative services include education, training for employment, and therapy. The habilitative process shall be undertaken with recognition of the risk to the public safety presented by the person being assisted as manifested by prior charged criminal conduct;

(27) "Hearing" means any proceeding conducted in open court that conforms to the requirements of RCW 71.05.820;

(28) "History of one or more violent acts" refers to the period of time ten years prior to the filing of a petition under this chapter, excluding any time spent, but not any violent acts committed, in a behavioral health facility, or in confinement as a result of a criminal conviction;

(29) "Imminent" means the state or condition of being likely to occur at any moment or near at hand, rather than distant or remote;

(30) "In need of assisted outpatient treatment" refers to a person who meets the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment established under RCW 71.05.148;

(31) "Individualized service plan" means a plan prepared by a developmental disabilities professional with other professionals as a team, for a person with developmental disabilities, which shall state:

(a) The nature of the person's specific problems, prior charged criminal behavior, and habilitation needs;

(b) The conditions and strategies necessary to achieve the purposes of habilitation;

(d) The rationale for using this plan of habilitation to achieve those intermediate and long-range goals;

(e) The staff responsible for carrying out the plan;

(f) Where relevant in light of past criminal behavior and due consideration for public safety, the criteria for proposed movement to less-restrictive settings, criteria for proposed eventual discharge or release, and a projected possible date for discharge or release; and

(g) The type of residence immediately anticipated for the person and possible future types of residences;

(32) "Intoxicated person" means a person whose mental or physical functioning is substantially impaired as a result of the use of alcohol or other psychoactive chemicals;

(33) "Judicial commitment" means a commitment by a court pursuant to the provisions of this chapter;

(34) "Legal counsel" means attorneys and staff employed by county prosecutor offices or the state attorney general acting in their capacity as legal representatives of public behavioral health service providers under RCW 71.05.130;

(35) "Less restrictive alternative treatment" means a program of individualized treatment in a less restrictive setting than inpatient treatment that includes the services described in RCW 71.05.585. This term includes: Treatment pursuant to a less restrictive alternative treatment order under RCW 71.05.240 or 71.05.320; treatment pursuant to a conditional release under RCW 71.05.340; and treatment pursuant to an assisted outpatient treatment order under RCW 71.05.148;

(36) "Licensed physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine and surgery in the state of Washington;

(37) "Likelihood of serious harm" means:

(a) A substantial risk that: (i) Physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon his or her own person, as evidenced by threats or attempts to commit suicide or inflict physical harm on oneself; (ii) physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon another, as evidenced by behavior which has caused such harm or which places another person or persons in reasonable fear of sustaining such harm; or (iii) physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon the property of others, as evidenced by behavior which has caused substantial loss or damage to the property of others; or

(b) The person has threatened the physical safety of another and has a history of one or more violent acts;

(38) "Medical clearance" means a physician or other health care provider has determined that a person is medically stable and ready for referral to the designated crisis responder;

(39) "Mental disorder" means any organic, mental, or emotional impairment which has substantial adverse effects on a person's cognitive or volitional functions;

(40) "Mental health professional" means an individual practicing within the mental health professional's statutory scope of practice who is:

(a) A psychiatrist, psychologist, physician assistant working with a supervising psychiatrist, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, psychiatric nurse, or social worker, as defined in this chapter and chapter 71.34 RCW;

(b) A mental health counselor, mental health counselor associate, marriage and family therapist, or marriage and family therapist associate, as defined in chapter 18.225 RCW; or

(41) "Peace officer" means a law enforcement official of a public agency or governmental unit, and includes persons specifically given peace officer powers by any state law, local ordinance, or judicial order of appointment;

(42) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed as a physician assistant under chapter 18.71A RCW;

(43) "Private agency" means any person, partnership, corporation, or association that is not a public agency, whether or not financed in whole or in part by public funds, which constitutes an evaluation and treatment facility or private institution, or hospital, or approved substance use disorder treatment program, which is conducted for, or includes a department or ward conducted for, the care and treatment of persons with behavioral health disorders;

(44) "Professional person" means a mental health professional, substance use disorder professional, or designated crisis responder and shall also mean a physician, physician assistant, psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner, registered nurse, and such others as may be defined by rules adopted by the secretary pursuant to the provisions of this chapter;

(45) "Psychiatric advanced registered nurse practitioner" means a person who is licensed as an advanced registered nurse practitioner pursuant to chapter 18.79 RCW; and who is board certified in advanced practice psychiatric and mental health nursing;

(46) "Psychiatrist" means a person having a license as a physician and surgeon in this state who has in addition completed three years of graduate training in psychiatry in a program approved by the American medical association or the American osteopathic association and is certified or eligible to be certified by the American board of psychiatry and neurology;

(47) "Psychologist" means a person who has been licensed as a psychologist pursuant to chapter 18.83 RCW;

(48) "Public agency" means any evaluation and treatment facility or institution, secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility, approved substance use disorder treatment program, or hospital which is conducted for, or includes a department or ward conducted for, the care and treatment of persons with behavioral health disorders, if the agency is operated directly by federal, state, county, or municipal government, or a combination of such governments;

(49) "Release" means legal termination of the commitment under the provisions of this chapter;

(50) "Resource management services" has the meaning given in chapter 71.24 RCW;

(51) "Secretary" means the secretary of the department of health, or his or her designee;

(52) "Secure withdrawal management and stabilization facility" means a facility operated by either a public or private agency or by the program of an agency which provides care to voluntary individuals and individuals involuntarily detained and committed under this chapter for whom there is a likelihood of serious harm or who are gravely disabled due to the presence of a substance use disorder. Secure withdrawal management and stabilization facilities must:

(a) Provide the following services:

(i) Assessment and treatment, provided by certified substance use disorder professionals or co-occurring disorder specialists;

(ii) Clinical stabilization services;

(iii) Acute or subacute detoxification services for intoxicated individuals; and

(iv) Discharge assistance provided by certified substance use disorder professionals or co-occurring disorder specialists, including facilitating transitions to appropriate voluntary or involuntary inpatient services or to less restrictive alternatives as appropriate for the individual;

(b) Include security measures sufficient to protect the patients, staff, and community; and

(53) "Social worker" means a person with a master's or further advanced degree from a social work educational program accredited and approved as provided in RCW 18.320.010;

(54) "Substance use disorder" means a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that an individual continues using the substance despite significant substance-related problems. The diagnosis of a substance use disorder is based on a pathological pattern of behaviors related to the use of the substances;

(55) "Substance use disorder professional" means a person certified as a substance use disorder professional by the department of health under chapter 18.205 RCW;

(56) "Therapeutic court personnel" means the staff of a mental health court or other therapeutic court which has jurisdiction over defendants who are dually diagnosed with mental disorders, including court personnel, probation officers, a court monitor, prosecuting attorney, or defense counsel acting within the scope of therapeutic court duties;

(57) "Treatment records" include registration and all other records concerning persons who are receiving or who at any time have received services for behavioral health disorders, which are maintained by the department of social and health services, the department, the authority, behavioral health administrative services organizations and their staffs, managed care organizations and their staffs, and by treatment facilities. Treatment records include mental health information contained in a medical bill including but not limited to mental health drugs, a mental health diagnosis, provider name, and dates of service stemming from a medical service. Treatment records do not include notes or records maintained for personal use by a person providing treatment services for the department of social and health services, the department, the authority, behavioral health administrative services organizations, managed care organizations, or a treatment facility if the notes or records are not available to others;

(58) "Video," unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, means the delivery of behavioral health services through the use of interactive audio and video technology, permitting real-time communication between a person and a designated crisis responder, for the purpose of evaluation. "Video" does not include the use of audio-only telephone, facsimile, email, or store and forward technology. "Store and forward technology" means use of an asynchronous transmission of a person's medical information from a mental health service provider to the designated crisis responder which results in medical diagnosis, consultation, or treatment;

(59) "Violent act" means behavior that resulted in homicide, attempted suicide, injury, or substantial loss or damage to property.

Sec. 46. RCW 71.05.020 and 2023 c 433 s 4 and 2023 c 425 s 21 are each reenacted and amended to read as follows:

The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.

(1) "23-hour crisis relief center" has the same meaning as under RCW 71.24.025;

(6) "Attending staff" means any person on the staff of a public or private agency having responsibility for the care and treatment of a patient;

(7) "Authority" means the Washington state health care authority;

(11) "Commitment" means the determination by a court that a person should be detained for a period of either evaluation or treatment, or both, in an inpatient or a less restrictive setting;

(12) "Community behavioral health agency" has the same meaning as "licensed or certified behavioral health agency" defined in RCW 71.24.025;

(13) "Conditional release" means a revocable modification of a commitment, which may be revoked upon violation of any of its terms;

(16) "Department" means the department of health;

(18) "Detention" or "detain" means the lawful confinement of a person, under the provisions of this chapter;

(20) "Developmental disability" means that condition defined in RCW 71A.10.020(6);

(21) "Director" means the director of the authority;

(22) "Discharge" means the termination of hospital medical authority. The commitment may remain in place, be terminated, or be amended by court order;

(25) "Gravely disabled" means a condition in which a person, as a result of a behavioral health disorder: (a) Is in danger of serious physical harm resulting from a failure to provide for his or her essential human needs of health or safety; or (b) manifests severe deterioration from safe behavior evidenced by repeated and escalating loss of cognitive or volitional control over his or her actions and is not receiving such care as is essential for his or her health or safety;

(27) "Hearing" means any proceeding conducted in open court that conforms to the requirements of RCW 71.05.820;

(29) "Imminent" means the state or condition of being likely to occur at any moment or near at hand, rather than distant or remote;

(30) "In need of assisted outpatient treatment" refers to a person who meets the criteria for assisted outpatient treatment established under RCW 71.05.148;

(a) The nature of the person's specific problems, prior charged criminal behavior, and habilitation needs;

(b) The conditions and strategies necessary to achieve the purposes of habilitation;

(d) The rationale for using this plan of habilitation to achieve those intermediate and long-range goals;

(e) The staff responsible for carrying out the plan;

(f) Where relevant in light of past criminal behavior and due consideration for public safety, the criteria for proposed movement to less-restrictive settings, criteria for proposed eventual discharge or release, and a projected possible date for discharge or release; and

(g) The type of residence immediately anticipated for the person and possible future types of residences;

(32) "Intoxicated person" means a person whose mental or physical functioning is substantially impaired as a result of the use of alcohol or other psychoactive chemicals;

(33) "Judicial commitment" means a commitment by a court pursuant to the provisions of this chapter;

(36) "Licensed physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine and surgery in the state of Washington;

(37) "Likelihood of serious harm" means:

(a) A substantial risk that: (i) Physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon his or her own person, as evidenced by threats or attempts to commit suicide or inflict physical harm on oneself; (ii) physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon another, as evidenced by behavior which has caused harm, substantial pain, or which places another person or persons in reasonable fear of harm to themselves or others; or (iii) physical harm will be inflicted by a person upon the property of others, as evidenced by behavior which has caused substantial loss or damage to the property of others; or